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Sunday, November 29, 2009

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Limited Job Openings

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Limited

(A Joint venture of Govt. of India and Govt. of Delhi)

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation DRMC, a Joint Venture Company with equity participation from Govt. of India and Govt. of National Capital Territory of Delhi has been entrusted with the responsibility of implementation of the rail based Mass Rapid Transit System for Delhi & NCR.

Applications are invited from young, dynamic and motivated persons of Indian nationality for the following category of Non-Executive posts in DMRC:

Post Code Name of the Post Grade (IDA) in Rs No. of Vacancies & Reserved category Educational Qualification Age Limit

01

Station Controller/ Train Operator (SC/TO) 13500-25520 184 (UR-78, OBC-34, SC-23, ST-49, ExSM-27) Three years Engineering Diploma in Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics / Electronics & Communication / equivalent Engineering discipline from a Govt. recognized Institute, with minimum 50% marks in the concerned discipline . 18 to 28 Years
(i.e. born not earlier than 2.7.1981 and not later than 1.7.199


Job Profile:

The job of Station Controller/Train Operator is inter-changeable in nature as per the requirement of the Corporation and it includes driving the train, looking after the affairs of Metro Stations including CCC, Depot Control Centres, Operation Control Centres etc. in shift duty including night shift. The job requires highest standard of medical fitness, including naked vision of 6/6.

Selection process:

The selection methodology will comprise four-stage process – Written Test (two papers), Psycho Test & Personal Interview followed by Medical examination in Aye-one category.
The selection process would judge different facets of knowledge, skills, comprehension, aptitude and physical fitness. Candidates will have to pass through each stage successfully (including Medical examination), before being adjudged as suitable for selection. Candidates, who fail in the prescribed medical test, will not be given any alternative employment and decision of the Corporation is final on this issue. Dates of written examination (tentatively to be held in last week of January, 2010)

Written Test:

The written test will consist of two papers (Paper-I and Paper-II, to be held on the same day in the same centre). Paper-I will consist of multiple-choice objective type questions, with provision of negative marking for wrong answers, on General Awareness, English, Logical Ability, Quantitative Aptitude and/or knowledge of the discipline/trade. The Paper-I shall be of 1.5 hours duration. Paper-II will consist of subjective type questions on Paragraph Writing, Comprehension, Essay and questions on Science & Technology matter, in English Medium to judge the candidate’s comprehension skills & test of English language. The Paper-II shall be of 1.5 hours duration.
Candidates who qualify in Paper-I and rank high on the merit list within the zone of consideration, as decided by the DMRC, will only be evaluated for Paper-II. Successful candidates based on the Written Test (Both Paper-I & Paper-II put together) shall be called for Psycho Test/ Personal Interview, at Delhi.
The candidates to be called for Psycho Test and Medical examination at Delhi shall be paid to & fro sleeper class Railway fare for journey by the shortest route between Railway Station nearest to hometown & Delhi. No reimbursement shall be made to the candidates appearing for the written examination.

Surety Bond:

The candidates will have to execute a surety bond of Rs. 50,000/- & Cost of training (approx.Rs.22,000/-) to serve the corporation for a minimum period of three years and also a three months prior notice, will be required before seeking resignation from the corporation.

Training & Probation:

The selected candidates on appointment will be on Probation for a period of two years (including period of training), where they will undergo intensive training for prescribed duration.

Pay & Emoluments:

The pay & emoluments for direct recruits shall be as per pay scales under the IDA (Industrial DA) pattern, Dearness Allowance as applicable from time to time and other benefits which include, HRA, Medical benefit, EPF, Gratuity, and Insurance etc. as per extant rules of the Corporation.

Apply Details :

The printout of the filled up application form should be sent to the following address by enclosing a non-refundable crossed Demand Draft for Rs.300/- for General & OBC candidates and for Rs.50/- for SC & ST candidates (for processing cost only) drawn only on State Bank of India in favour of DELHI METRO RAIL CORPORATION LIMITED, payable at Service Branch, New Delhi (Code No-7687) indicating on the reverse of the DD, their name & address, e-mail, telephone no. if any, latest by 31/12/2009, through Ordinary Post addressed to "DMRC Ltd., Post Bag No- 9", Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110003. The filled up application should be sent in the Envelope super- scribing on it prominently – "Post Code, Name of Post". Demand Drafts payable at locations other than Delhi / New Delhi will not be accepted.

Check All Details Here

Download Application Format

Click Here to Download Certificate format to be produced by SC and ST

Click Here to Download Certificate format to be produced by Other Backward Classes

Central Tool Room Job Openings

Central Tool Room, Ludhiana
Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises

Recruitment of Graduate and Diploma Engineer Trainee

Applications are invited for the post of Graduate and Diploma Engineer Trainees

Name of post: Graduate Engineer Trainee/Diploma Engineer Trainee

Qualification: B.E/ B.Tech/ Diploma in Mechanical/ Production Engg with at least 60% marks with knowledge of CAD/CAM. Candidates who has completed Post Graduate course in Tool Engg/Tool Design/Tool manufacturing of minimum one & half year duration from a reputed institute/university shall be directly admitted to the 2nd year of Training.

No of post: 5(Five)

Stipend: During training period stipend of Rs.7000/Rs.5000 per month for 1st year shall be paid.

Age Limit : 30 years.

Duration of the training: 2 Years.

How to apply

Application Form should be accompanied by a Bank draft of Rs.150/- (Rupees one hundred fifty only) in favour of Central Tool Room, Ludhiana, payable at State Bank of India, RNW Branch, Ludhiana should reach on or before 7th December 2009 addressed to the General Manager, Central Tool Room, A-5, Focal Point, Ludhiana. Those who are employed in Govt., Public Sector undertaking/autonomous bodies should send their applications through proper channel.

Click Here For Details & Application Form

Saturday, November 28, 2009

APPSC JL History Paper

APPSC JL History Paper

APPSC Junior Lecturers Zoology Paper

APPSC JL Papers

APPSC JL Telugu Model Paper

APPSC Junior lecturers model papers - Telugu

Appsc JL GS Model Paper

APPSC JL General Studies Paper

Junior Lecturers Model Paper General Studies

UPSC ESSAY PAPER(Compulsory)-2009

ESSAY (Compulsory)-2009

Time Allowed:Three Hours
Maximum Marks:200

INSTRUCTIONS
The essay must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you. The name of the medium must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No credit will be given to the essay written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

(Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate's grasp of his material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think constructively and to present his ideas concisely, logically and effectively.)

Write an essay on any one of the following topics :
200
  1. Are our traditional handicrafts doomed to a slow death?
  2. Are we a 'soft' state?
  3. ''The focus of health care is increasingly getting skewed towards the 'haves' of our society.''
  4. 'Good fences make good neighbours.''
  5. 'Globalism' vs. 'Nationalism'

UPSC ESSAY PAPER(Compulsory)-2009

ESSAY (Compulsory)-2009

Time Allowed:Three Hours
Maximum Marks:200

INSTRUCTIONS
The essay must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you. The name of the medium must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No credit will be given to the essay written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

(Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate's grasp of his material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think constructively and to present his ideas concisely, logically and effectively.)

Write an essay on any one of the following topics :
200
  1. Are our traditional handicrafts doomed to a slow death?
  2. Are we a 'soft' state?
  3. ''The focus of health care is increasingly getting skewed towards the 'haves' of our society.''
  4. 'Good fences make good neighbours.''
  5. 'Globalism' vs. 'Nationalism'

UPSC GENERAL STUDIES - 2008 ( Prelims)

GENERAL STUDIES - 2008
(Preliminary)

Time Allowed:Two Hours
Maximum Marks:150
  1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Person) List-II (Position)
    A. Nagendar Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
    B. A. N. Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice
    C. R. K. Trivedi 3. Chief Justice of India
    D. Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India


    A B C D
    a 1 4 2 3
    b 2 3 1 4
    c 1 3 2 4
    b 2 4 1 3

  2. Consider the following statements :
    1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
    2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than the albedo of the Earth.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  3. Consider the following statements about probiotic food :
    1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.
    2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  4. Yom Kippur War was fought between which sides/countries?
    1. Turkey and Greece
    2. Serbs and Croats
    3. Israel, and Arab countries led by Egypt and Syria
    4. Iran and Iraq

  5. Norman Ernest Borlaug who is regarded as the father of the Green Revolution in India is from which country?
    1. United States of America
    2. Mexico
    3. Australia
    4. New Zealand

  6. In which one of the following states are Namchik-Namphuk coal fields located?
    1. Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Meghalaya
    3. Manipur
    4. Mizoram

  7. Which one of the following is correct in respect of Indian football team's performance in the Olympic Games?
    1. India has never participated in the Olympic Football Tournament
    2. India played only in the First Round
    3. India entered only up to the Quarter Finals
    4. India entered the Semi Finals

  8. Which was the capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate state in the year 1953?
    1. Guntur
    2. Kurnool
    3. Nellore
    4. Warangal

  9. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice President of India?
    1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
    2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
    3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
    4. Shankar Dayal Sharma

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    2. 1 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 3 and 4 only

  10. What is the pH level of blood of normal person?
    1. 4.5–4.6
    2. 6.45–6.55
    3. 7.35–7.45
    4. 8.25–8.35

  11. C. Rangarajan has been actively involved in the Pan-Asian Commission addressing to which one of the following issues?
    1. Promotion of tourism in the Asian region
    2. Impact of HIV/AIDS in the Asian region
    3. Promotion of free trade in the Asian region
    4. Higher technical education in the universities in the Asian region

  12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Service/Agency) List-II (Country)
    A. Foreign Intelligence Service 1. Israel
    B. Ministry of State Security 2. Britain
    C. Secret Intelligence Service 3. China
    D. The Mossad 4. Russia


    A B C D
    a 4 1 2 3
    b 2 3 4 1
    c 4 3 2 1
    d 2 1 4 3

  13. ISRO successfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test-stand used for the purpose, located?
    1. Balasore
    2. Thiruvananthapuram
    3. Mahendragiri
    4. Karwar

  14. In which one of the following is Malta located?
    1. Baltic Sea
    2. Mediterranean Sea
    3. Black Sea
    4. North Sea

  15. Starting with the Australian Open Lawn Tennis tournament, which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the other three major Lawn Tennis Tournaments?
    1. French Open - US Open - Wimbledon
    2. French Open - Wimbledon - US Open
    3. Wimbledon - US Open - French Open
    4. Wimbledon - French Open - US Open

  16. Among the following, which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
    1. Echidna
    2. Kangaroo
    3. Porcupine
    4. Whale

  17. The release of which one of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes?
    1. Crab
    2. Dogfish
    3. Gambusia fish
    4. Snail

  18. Which Schedule of the constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several states?
    1. Third
    2. Fifth
    3. Seventh
    4. Ninth

  19. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?
    1. Ministry of Defence
    2. Ministry of Home Affairs
    3. Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
    4. Ministry of Environment and Forests

  20. For which one of the following reforms was a commission set up under the chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?
    1. Police Reforms
    2. Tax Reforms
    3. Reforms in Technical Education
    4. Administrative Reforms

  21. Elizabeth Hawley is well-known for her writings relating to which one of the following?
    1. Historical monuments in India
    2. Regional dances in India
    3. Himalayan expeditions
    4. Wildlife in India

  22. In India, how many states share the coastline?
    1. 7
    2. 8
    3. 9
    4. 10

  23. Nobel prize winning scientist James D. Watson is known for his work in which area?
    1. Metallurgy
    2. Meteorology
    3. Environmental protection
    4. Genetics

  24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Board) List-II (Headquarters)
    A. Coffee Board 1. Bengaluru
    B. Rubber Board 2. Guntur
    C. Tea Board 3. Kottayam
    D. Tobacco Board 4. Kolkata


    A B C D
    a 2 4 3 1
    b 1 3 4 2
    c 2 3 4 1
    d 1 4 3 2

  25. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
    1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    2. Arunachal Pradesh
    3. Assam
    4. Meghalaya

  26. Among the following, which one is not an ape?
    1. Gibbon
    2. Gorilla
    3. Langur
    4. Orangutan

  27. >>>>>Diagram>>>>>> >>>>>Diagram>>>>>>>
    In how many different ways can all of 5 identical balls be placed in the cells shown above such that each row contains at least 1 ball?
    1. 64
    2. 81
    3. 84
    4. 108

  28. There are 6 different letters and 6 correspondingly addressed envelopes. If the letters are randomly put in the envelopes, what is the probability that exactly 5 letters go into the correctly addressed envelopes?
    1. zero
    2. 1/6
    3. 1/2
    4. 5/6

  29. >>>>>Diagram>>>>>> >>>>>Diagram>>>>>>>
    There are two identical red, two identical black and two identical white balls. In how many different ways can the balls be placed in the cells (each cell to contain one ball) shown above such that balls of the same colour do not occupy any two consecutive cells?
    1. 15
    2. 18
    3. 24
    4. 30

  30. >>>>>Diagram>>>>>> >>>>>Diagram>>>>>>>
    How many different triangles are there in the figure shown above?
    1. 28
    2. 24
    3. 20
    4. 16

  31. Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched?
    1. Francis Collins : Mapping human genome
    2. Sergey Brin : Google Search Engine
    3. Jimmy Wales : Wikipedia
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2, and 3

  32. What does S&P 500 relate to?
    1. Super computer
    2. A new technique in e-business
    3. A new technique in bridge building
    4. An index of stocks of large companies

  33. Rajiv Gandhi National Flying Institute is being established in which state?
    1. Karnataka
    2. Maharashtra
    3. Kerala
    4. Orissa

  34. Who among the following has been the captain of the Indian team in Cricket Test Matches for the maximum number of times?
    1. Sunil Gavaskar
    2. Mansur Ali Khan Pataudi
    3. Saurav Ganguly
    4. Mohammad Azharuddin

  35. Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e Azadi?
    1. Sahir Ludhiyanvi
    2. Faiz Ahmed Faiz
    3. Muhammad Iqbal
    4. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

  36. How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometres?
    1. 183 × 106 nanometres
    2. 234 × 106 nanometres
    3. 183 × 107 nanometres
    4. 234 × 107 nanometres

  37. A person is sitting in a car which is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary?
    1. It will be greater than R
    2. It will less than R
    3. It will be equal to R
    4. It shall depend on the material of the road

  38. With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?
    1. Chambal
    2. Narmada
    3. Tapi
    4. Bhima

  39. Consider the following statements :
    1. The Nuclear Suppliers Group has 24 countries as its members.
    2. India is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  40. In the context of the Indian defence, what is 'Dhruv'?
    1. Aircraft - carrying warship
    2. Missile - carrying submarine
    3. Advanced light helicopter
    4. Intercontinental ballistic missile

  41. 'Hand-in-Hand 2007', a joint anti-terrorism military training was held by the officers of the Indian Army and officers of Army of which one of the following countries?
    1. China
    2. Japan
    3. Russia
    4. USA

    Directions: The following 4 (Four) items consist two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers to these items using the codes given below :
    1. Both A and R are individually true and a R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true but R is false
    4. A is false but R is true

  42. Assertion (A): In human body, liver has an important role in fat digestion.
    Reason (R): Liver produces two importance fat-digesting enzymes.

  43. Assertion (A): In the visible spectrum of light, red light is more energetic than green light.
    Reason (R): The wavelength of red light is more than that of green light.

  44. Assertion (A): Radio waves bend in a magnetic field.
    Reason (R): Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature.

  45. Assertion (A): The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939.
    Reason (R): The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the context of the Second World War.

  46. Where was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?
    1. Ahmadabad
    2. Bombay
    3. Calcutta
    4. Delhi

  47. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abdul Kalam Azad?
    1. Al-Hilal
    2. Comrade
    3. The Indian Sociologist
    4. Zamindar

  48. Who among the following Gandhian followers was a teacher by profession?
    1. A. N. Sinha
    2. Braj Kishore Prasad
    3. J. B. Kriplani
    4. Rajendra Prasad

  49. How much is one barrel of oil approximately equal to?
    1. 131 litres
    2. 159 litres
    3. 257 litres
    4. 321 litres

  50. Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest metal, respectively?
    1. Lithium and mercury
    2. Lithium and osmium
    3. Aluminium and osmium
    4. Aluminium and mercury

  51. Mixture of which one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence of most of the explosions in mines?
    1. Hydrogen and oxygen
    2. Oxygen and acetylene
    3. Methane and air
    4. Carbon dioxide and methane

  52. Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?
    1. Argon
    2. Neon
    3. Xenon
    4. Nitrous oxide

  53. What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?
    1. Silicon dioxide
    2. Aluminium oxide
    3. Lead tetroxide
    4. Boron nitride

  54. Consider the following statements :
    1. A widely used musical scale called diatonic scale has seven frequencies.
    2. The frequency of the note Sa is 256 Hz and that of Ni is 512 Hz.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  55. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
    1. Dye laser
    2. Gas laser
    3. Semiconductor laser
    4. Excimer laser

  56. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket?
    1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion is space.
    2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  57. Among the following, which one has the minimum population on the basis of data of Census of India, 2001?
    1. Chandigarh
    2. Mizoram
    3. Puducherry
    4. Sikkim

  58. Who among the following translated the Autobiography of Madam Curie in Hindi?
    1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
    3. Choudhary Charan Singh
    4. Gobind Vallabh Pant

  59. Who among the following scientists shared the Nobel Prize in Physics with his son?
    1. Max Planck
    2. Albert Einstein
    3. William Henry Bragg
    4. Enrico Fermi

  60. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in respect of the Roman numerals - C, D, L and M?
    1. C > D > L > M
    2. M > L > D > C
    3. M > D > C > L
    4. L > C > D > M

  61. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutra) relate to?
    1. Lengths of sides of a right-angled triangle
    2. Calculation of the value of pi
    3. Logarithmic calculations
    4. Normal distribution curve

  62. Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched? Theory/ Law Associated Scientist
    1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble
    2. Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener
    3. Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein
  63. Which of the following minerals are found in a natural way in the state of Chhattisgarh?
    1. Bauxite
    2. Dolomite
    3. Iron ore
    4. Tin

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  64. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
    1. Alaknanda
    2. Bhagirathi
    3. Dhauliganga
    4. Mandakini

  65. Which one of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
    1. Colombo
    2. Jakarta
    3. Manila
    4. Singapore

  66. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Waterfalls River
    1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
    2. Jog Falls : Sharavati
    3. Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  67. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?
    1. Malacca Strait
    2. Bering Strait
    3. Strait of Florida
    4. Strait of Gibraltar

  68. Which of the following pairs in respect of correct power generation in India is/are correctly matched? (Round Figure)
    1. Installed electricity generation capacity : 100000 MW
    2. Electricity generation : 660 billion kWh
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  69. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Irrigation Project State
    1. Damanganga : Gujarat
    2. Girna : Maharashtra
    3. Pamba : Kerala

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  70. Who among the following rejected the title of Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India?
    1. Motilal Nehru
    2. M. G. Ranade
    3. G. K. Gokhale
    4. B. G. Tilak

  71. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India?
    1. Akbar
    2. Jahangir
    3. Shahjahan
    4. Aurangzeb

  72. The term ''Prisoner's Dilemma'' is associated with which one of the following?
    1. A technique is glass manufacture
    2. A term used in shipping industry
    3. A situation under the Game Theory
    4. Name of a super computer

  73. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called 'Free Indian Legion'?
    1. Lala Hardayal
    2. Rashbehari Bose
    3. Subhas Chandra Bose
    4. V. D. Savarkar

  74. Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy's Executive Council in which all the portfolios including that of of War Members were to be held by the Indian leaders?
    1. Simon Commission
    2. Simla Conference
    3. Cripps Proposal
    4. Cabinet Mission

  75. What is Agent Orange?
    1. An ace spying group trained by the Police in London
    2. A weed-killing chemical used by the US Military in the Vietnam War
    3. A technique used in the advanced railway safety procedure
    4. A special chemical used in making alloy steel

  76. Which two countries follow China and India in the decreasing order of their populations?
    1. Brazil and USA
    2. USA and Indonesia
    3. Canada and Malaysia
    4. Russia and Nigeria

  77. Amongst the following states, which one has the highest percentage of rural population to its total population (on the basis of the Census, 2001)?
    1. Himachal Pradesh
    2. Bihar
    3. Orissa
    4. Uttar Pradesh

  78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Organization) List-II (Associated Convention/ Person/ Place/ Headquarters)
    A. Amnesty International 1. Viskuli
    B. Common wealth of Independent States (CIS) 2. Paris
    C. Danube Commission 3. Peter Benenson
    D. European Space Agency 4. Belgrade Convention


    A B C D
    a 3 1 4 2
    b 4 2 3 1
    c 3 2 4 1
    d 4 1 3 2

  79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Person) List-II (Area)
    A. K. P. Singh 1. Banking
    B. Vikram Pandit 2. Fiction writing
    C. Roopa Farooki 3. Retail business
    D. Kishore Biyani 4. Real estate


    A B C D
    a 4 2 3 1
    b 3 1 2 4
    c 3 2 1 4
    d 4 1 2 3

  80. Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio + 10) held?
    1. Davos
    2. Nova Scotia
    3. Johannesburg
    4. Shanghai

  81. Consider the following statements :
    1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits in one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
    2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  82. Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
    1. Ludhiana
    2. Kochi
    3. Surat
    4. Nagpur

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  83. Which of the following are the public sector undertakings of the Government of India?
    1. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.
    2. Dredging Corporation of India
    3. Educational Consultants of India Ltd.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  84. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under raising their number to 22?
    1. Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
    2. Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
    3. Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
    4. Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act

  85. Consider the following statements :
    The Constitution of India provides that
    1. The Legislative Assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state
    2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a state if he/ she is less than 25 years of age

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  86. Which of the following is/ are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
    1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
    2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2 only
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  87. How is the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference wherein the agreements were signed to set up IBRD, GATT and IMF, commonly known?
    1. Bandung Conference
    2. Bretton Woods Conference
    3. Versailles Conference
    4. Yalta Conference

  88. Where was the first desalination plant in India to produce one lakh litres freshwater per day based on low temperature thermal desalination principle commissioned?
    1. Kavaratti
    2. Port Blair
    3. Mangalore
    4. Valsad

  89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Institute Location
    1. National Centre for Cell : Mysore
    2. Centre for DNA Fingerprinting : Hyderabad and Diagnostics
    3. National Brain Research Centre : Gurgaon

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 3 only

  90. With which one of the following is BRIT (Government of India) engaged?
    1. Railway Wagons
    2. Information Technology
    3. Isotope Technology
    4. Road Transport

  91. Who among the following used the phrase 'Un-British' to criticize the English colonial control of India?
    1. Anandmohan Bose
    2. Badruddin Tyabji
    3. Dadabhai Naoroji
    4. Pherozeshah Mehta

  92. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled New Lamps for old?
    1. Aurobindo Ghosh
    2. R. C. Dutt
    3. Syed Ahmad Khan
    4. Viraraghavachari

  93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Author) List-II (Work)
    A. Bakimchandra 1. Shatranj Ke Khilari
    B. Dinabandhu Mitra 2. Debi Chaudhurani
    C. Premchand 3. Nil-Darpan

    4. Chandrakanta


    A B C
    a 2 4 1
    b 3 4 2
    c 2 3 1
    d 3 1 4

  94. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Projects located?
    1. Madhya Pradesh
    2. Uttar Pradesh
    3. Uttarakhand
    4. Rajasthan

  95. How is Sarosh Zaiwalla well-known as?
    1. A leading theatre personality
    2. A leading wildlife photographer
    3. A leading international legal expert
    4. A leading orthopaedic surgeon

  96. Bimbavati Devi is a well-known dancer of which type of dance?
    1. Manipuri
    2. Bharat Natyam
    3. Kuchipudi
    4. Odissi

  97. Consider the following statements :
    1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
    2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee-producing region.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  98. Ebraham Alkazi is an eminent personality in which one of the following areas?
    1. Heart surgery
    2. Civil aviation
    3. Theatre training
    4. Transport engineering

  99. Consider the following statements :
    1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
    2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
    List-I (Person) List-II (Area)
    A. Sabyasachi Mukherjee 1. Microfinance loans
    B. Aniruddha Bahal 2. Pharmaceuticals
    C. Vikram Akula 3. Fashion designing
    D. Yusuf Hamied 4. Investigation journalism


    A B C D
    a 1 2 3 4
    b 3 4 2 1
    c 1 4 3 2
    d 3 2 1 4

  101. For India, China, the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the median age of their populations?
    1. China <>
    2. India <>
    3. China <>
    4. India <>

  102. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?
    1. Kangra
    2. Ladakh
    3. Kachchh
    4. Bhilwara

  103. Consider the following statements :
    1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE.
    2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdon to join the UAE.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  104. India is a member of which of the following?
    1. Asian Development Bank
    2. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
    3. Colombo Plan
    4. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  105. Which of the following countries share borders with Moldova?
    1. Ukraine
    2. Romania
    3. Belarus

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

  106. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have recognized on the World Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them?
    1. Gulf of Mannar
    2. Kanchejunga
    3. Nanda Devi
    4. Sunderbans

  107. What is the purpose of the US Space Agency's Themis Mission, which was recently in the news?
    1. To study the possibility of life on Mars
    2. To study the satellites of Saturn
    3. To study the colourful display of high latitude skies
    4. To build a space laboratory to study the stellar explosions

  108. In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?
    1. Northern Spain
    2. Southern France
    3. Eastern Germany
    4. Southern Italy

  109. Which one of the following is a spacecraft?
    1. Apophis
    2. Cassini
    3. Spitzer
    4. TechSar

  110. What is teh approximate percentage of persons above 65 years of age in India's current population?
    1. 14-15%
    2. 11-12%
    3. 8-9%
    4. 5-6%

  111. In the year 2007, an earthquake led to massive radioactive water leakage in the largest nuclear plant in the world. In which country did it occur?
    1. Germany
    2. Canada
    3. Japan
    4. USA

  112. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?
    1. Lord Irwin
    2. Lord Reading
    3. Lord Chelmsford
    4. Lord Wavell

  113. Cristina Kirchner succeeded her husband to become president of a South American country. Which is that country?
    1. Chile
    2. Argentina
    3. Colombia
    4. Venezuela

  114. In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
    1. Earth and Jupiter
    2. Jupiter and Saturn
    3. Saturn and Earth
    4. Saturn and Neptune

  115. Which one of the following countries won the Euro Football Tournament, 2004 held in Portugal?
    1. Italy
    2. France
    3. Greece
    4. Portugal

  116. Near which one of the following cities are Palitana Temples located?
    1. Bhavnagar
    2. Mount Abu
    3. Nasik
    4. Ujjain

  117. Ogaden region has been a source of conflict between which countries?
    1. Morocco and Algeria
    2. Nigeria and Cameroon
    3. Angola and Zambia
    4. Ethiopia and Somalia

  118. Kim Dae-Jung won the Noble Prize for Peace. He is from which one of the following countries?
    1. Vietnam
    2. Cambodia
    3. South Korea
    4. Japan

  119. Who among the following discovered heavy water?
    1. Heinrich Hertz
    2. H.C. Urey
    3. G. Mendel
    4. Joseph Priestley

  120. Among the Indian languages, which one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi?
    1. Telugu
    2. Tamil
    3. Bengali
    4. Malayalam

  121. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
    1. Passion flower plant
    2. Pitcher plant
    3. Night queen
    4. Flame of the forest

  122. For which one of the following snakes is the diet mainly composed of other snakes?
    1. Krait
    2. Russell's viper
    3. Rattlesnake
    4. King cobra

  123. In which one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills male after copulation?
    1. Dragonfly
    2. Honeybee
    3. Spider
    4. Pit viper

  124. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one state (Union Territories not included)?
    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 5

  125. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?
    1. Brazil
    2. China
    3. India
    4. USA

  126. Consider the following statements :
    1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
    2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  127. Consider the following pairs : Tributory River Main River
    1. Chambal : Narmada
    2. Sone : Yamuna
    3. Manas : Brahmaputra

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 3 only

  128. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?
    1. Anaimalai Hills
    2. Cardamom Hills
    3. Nilgiri Hills
    4. Shevoroy Hills

  129. Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayn vegetation?
    1. Juniper
    2. Mahogany
    3. Silver fir
    4. Spruce

  130. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in teh National Flag of India?
    1. 16
    2. 18
    3. 22
    4. 24

  131. Consider the following :
    1. Rice fields
    2. Coal mining
    3. Domestic animals
    4. Wetlands

    Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?
    1. 1 and 4 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  132. From which one of the following did India by the Barak anti-missile defence systems?
    1. Israel
    2. France
    3. Russia
    4. USA

  133. Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the following?
    1. China
    2. European Union
    3. Japan
    4. USA

  134. Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following have been included in the UNESCO's Memory of World Register?
    1. Abhidhamma Pitaka
    2. Mahabharata
    3. Ramayana
    4. Rig-Veda

  135. Consider the following statements :
    1. Orange Prize is awarded to a work of published fiction in English by a woman.
    2. Pulitzer Prize is awarded by the Commonwealth Foundation to a citizen of any Commonwealth country for any literary work in English.

    Which of the statements given is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  136. In the series
    AABABCABCDABCDE ..........
    Which letter occupies 100th position?
    1. H
    2. I
    3. J
    4. K

  137. What is the number of terms in the series 117, 120, 123, 126, ....., 333?
    1. 72
    2. 73
    3. 76
    4. 79

  138. In how many different ways can four books, A, B, C and D be arranged one above another in a vertical order such that the books A and B are never in continuous position?
    1. 9
    2. 12
    3. 14
    4. 18

  139. Carpenter A can make a chair in 6 hours, carpenter B in 7 hours and carpenter C in 8 hours. If each carpenter works for 8 hours per day, how many chairs will be made in 21 days?
    1. 61
    2. 67
    3. 73
    4. 79

  140. A person purchases 100 pens at a discount of 10%. The net amount of money spent by the person to purchase the pens is Rs. 600. The selling expenses incurred by the person are 15% on the net cost price. What should be the selling price for 100 pens in order to earn a profit of 25%?
    1. Rs. 802.50
    2. Rs. 811.25
    3. Rs. 862.50
    4. Rs. 875

  141. A school teacher has to select the maximum possible number of different groups of 3 students out of a total of 6 students. In how many groups any particular student will be included?
    1. 6
    2. 8
    3. 10
    4. 12

  142. In an examination, 70% of the students passed in the Paper I, and 60% of the students passed in the Paper II. 15% of the students failed in both the papers while 270 students passed in both the papers. What is the total number of students?
    1. 600
    2. 580
    3. 560
    4. 540

  143. What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?
    1. A medical test for detecting cancer
    2. A test for testing the use of drugs to improve performance by athletes
    3. A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials
    4. A special type of alloy steel

  144. Which of the following pairs about India's economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched?
    1. GDP per capita (current prices) : Rs. 37,000
    2. Rice : 180 million tons
    3. Wheat : 75 million tons

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 3 only

  145. March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March1, 2002?
    1. Thursday
    2. Friday
    3. Saturday
    4. Sunday

  146. In August 2006, the Government of India notified the Rural Electrification Policy. This policy aims at provision of access to all households by which year?
    1. 2008
    2. 2009
    3. 2010
    4. 2012

  147. As per India's National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?
    1. 2025
    2. 2035
    3. 2045
    4. 2055

  148. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?
    1. Ministry of Agriculture
    2. Ministry of Science and Technology
    3. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
    4. Ministry of Rural Development

  149. Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOPAS) :
    1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
    2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of Rs. 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

  150. What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and non-traditional trades?
    1. Kishori Shakti Yojna
    2. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
    3. Swayamsiddha
    4. Swawlamban

UPSC GENERAL STUDIES Mains Paper 2008

GENERAL STUDIES
(MAIN)

2008 PAPER-I
Time Allowed:Three Hours
Maximum Marks:300
Instructions

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
  1. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
    15 × 2 = 30
    1. "The emergencce of new social classes in British India was the direct consequence of the establishment of new social economy, new state system, administrative machinery and Western education." Discuss.
    2. "British vision of India had no single coherent set of ideas. On the contraty, the ideas were shot through with contradictions and inconsistencies." Discuss.
    3. "Non-Cooperation Movement gave new direction and energy to the National Movement." Expalin.

  2. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each):
    2 × 15 = 30
    1. Lakshmi Bai, Rani of Jhansi
    2. Ilbert Bill
    3. Lala Hara Dayal
    4. Vaikam Satyagraha
    5. Indian States Commission
    6. Bodhisattva
    7. Megasthenes
    8. Brihadeshwara Temple, Tanjore
    9. Perini Shivatandavam
    10. Allasani Peddana
    11. Golkonda Fort (l) Chishti Silsila
    12. Chouth and Sardeshmukhi
    13. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
    14. 'Rama Sethu'

  3. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
    15 × 2 = 30
    1. The winter rains in North India are largely related to Jet Streams and Western Distubances. Bring out the relationship.
    2. Agricultural Productivity in India remain low. Explain the reasons for this situation.
    3. Bring out the pros and cons of Special Economiz Zones.

  4. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each):
    2 × 5 = 10
    1. Buckingham Canal
    2. Terai Region
    3. Organic Farming
    4. Demographic Dividend
    5. Nor'westers

  5. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words ):
    30
    1. What is meant by 'Judicial Activism'? Evaluate its role in the context of the funtioning of Indian Polity.
    2. Discuss the major extra-constitutional factors influencing the federal polity in India.

  6. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
    15 × 2 = 30
    1. Enumerate the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution after the 42nd Amendment.
    2. Examine the demand for greater state automomy and its impact on the smooth functioning of indian polity.
    3. Discuss the composition and functions of the Union Public Service Commission.

  7. Answer the following (in about 20 words each):
    2 × 5 = 10
    1. What is a Censure Motion?
    2. Distinguish between the auditing and accounting functions of the CAG of India.
    3. Distinguish between a starred question and an unstarred one asked in the Parliament.
    4. What is comtempt of Parliament?
    5. What were teh two major considerations to have the Governor appointed and not elected?

  8. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words):
    30
    1. What, in your opinion, are the causes of terrorism? Suggest suitable measures to deal with the threat of terrorism in India.
    2. Do you think there is a need for a review of the Indian Constitution? Justify your view.

  9. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
    15 × 2 = 30
    1. Examine the role of caste in Indian Politics.
    2. Discuss the problems in achieving National Intergration in India.
    3. Examine the impact of Regional Poiltical Parties in Indian Poiltics.

  10. Answer any one of the following questions (in about 250 words):
    30
    1. "Globalization has brought about a distinct class divided in India instead of ushering in a classless society." Critically examine this argument.
    2. "The conditions of the urban poor are more deplorable than that of their rural counterparts." Give your views.

  11. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
    15 × 2 = 30
    1. Examine whether rural women in India have been empowered by their active participation in Panchayat Raj System.
    2. "Decline in the sex ration in India is an alarming sign for India's future social development." Discuss.
    3. What should bethe role of the media to project 'mass reality' in place of 'illusion of reality'?

  12. Write about the following (in about 20 words each):
    2 × 5 = 10
    1. MTP Act
    2. Supreme Court on Ragging
    3. New Seven Wonders of the World
    4. M.M.Punchi Commission
    5. Lakshmi Mittal


GENERAL STUDIES
(MAIN)

2008 PAPER-II
Time Allowed:Three Hours
Maximum Marks:300
Instructions

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
  1. Write notes on any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words):
    2 × 30 = 60
    1. India and the New World Order
    2. Indo-Bhutan Relations
    3. India and China: Strategy to Boost Ties

  2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words):
    5 × 2 = 10
    1. India's Ocean Development Policy
    2. Major hurdles in Indo-Pak ties
    3. India-Nigeria: Abuja Declaration
    4. India-Bangladesh Border Road cum fencing
    5. India's L.C.A. (Tejas)

  3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words):
    5 × 2 = 10
    1. Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas
    2. Council for Promotion of Overseas Employment (CPOE)
    3. Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme
    4. Indian Diaspora in Singapore
    5. Indian Diaspora and Bollywood

  4. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words):
    30
    1. Discuss India's stand on agricultural issues in WTO's Ministerial Conferences since Doha Round.
    2. Assess the performance of India in attracting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

  5. Discuss any two of the following topics(answer each question in about 150 words):
    2 × 15 = 30
    1. Assistance to the States for Development of Export Infrastructure and other activities (ASIDE).
    2. Convertibility of Indian Rupee.
    3. India on Global competitiveness Index - 2007.

  6. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words):
    5 × 2 = 10
    1. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
    2. NAMA
    3. Non-tariff trade barriers
    4. Current Account Balance
    5. Free Trade Area

  7. Write on any one of the following (answer in about 150 words):
    15
    1. South-South Cooperation
    2. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

  8. Briefly write about the following (answer to each qeustion should be in about 20 words):
    5 × 2 = 10
    1. Look East Policy and North-East India
    2. India at the Beijing Olympics
    3. India's role in Afganisthan Today
    4. IPCC Report on Global Warming
    5. Indo-EU Economic Ties

  9. Briefly write about the following (answer to each qeustion should be in about 20 words):
    5 × 2 = 10
    1. G.C.C.
    2. G - 77
    3. I.C.R.C.
    4. MERCOSUR
    5. INTERPOL

  10. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words):
    30
    1. In what way 'Medical Biotechnology' and 'Bioengineering' are useful for technological development of India?
    2. What do you know about Indian Natinal Satellite Systems? Descrihbe its important features.

  11. Explain any three of the following (in about 150 words each):
    3 × 15 = 45
    1. Internet Protocol Television (IPTV)
    2. Spintronics
    3. Components of Robots

  12. Write breif notes on all the five (in about 20 words each) below:
    5 × 2 = 10
    1. Copyright and Trade-mark
    2. TIFAC
    3. Aspartame
    4. Gene doping
    5. Sappan

    1. The Principal exports of India for the financial year 2001-2002 are given in the following table:
      Sl.No Category Export
      1 Agriculture and allied products 29312
      2 Ores and minerals 4736
      3 Manufactured goods 161161
      4 Fuels and lubricants 10411
      5 Others 3398

      Total 209018
      Represent the above date by a suitable diagram and comment on the export performance of the country.
      6
    2. Prior to constructing a dam on a river the engineers performed a series of tests to measure the water flow at the proposed location of the dam. The result of the testing were used to construct the following frequency distribution.
      Water flow
      (Thousands of gallons per minute)
      Frequency
      1001-1050 7
      1051-1100 21
      1101-1150 32
      1151-1200 49
      1201-1250 58
      1251-1300 41
      1301-1350 27
      1351-1400 11
      Construct an appropriate diagram to estimate what proportion of the flow occurs at less than 1300 thousands of gallons per minute. Give the estimate.
      6

    1. A compnay files its sales vouchers according to their sales value so that they falls in four strata. Two hundred vouchers are received on a business day. The information is listed in the following table:
      Stratum Number of vouchers Mean value (Rs.)
      Above Rs.1000
      Rs. 800 but under
      50 1800
      Rs. 1000 60 890
      Rs. 400 but
      under Rs. 800
      50 560
      Less than Rs. 400 40 180
      Calculate the mean value and the total value of the vouchers received by the company on the day in question. Use the histogram to estimate the modal value of the vouchers.
      6
    2. A trip to a destination is made in the following way:
      900 kms by train at an average speed of 60 kms/hr
      3000 kms by plane at an average speed of 500 kms/hr
      400 kms by boat at an average speed of 25 kms/hr
      15 kms by taxi at an average speed of 45 kms/hr
      What is the average speed for the entire journey?
      6

    1. A hotel owner has nine refreshment stalls located at various points in a large compound. He wants to make one of the stalls as a supply place such that amount of travel between the stalls and the source of supply is minimized. He has to visit all stalls almost equal number of times with a view to supplying the refreshment stuff everyday. The distances of stalls from the first stall are 250, 500, 650, 800, 850, 910, 940 and 1000 yards respectively. Which stall should he choose to use as the supply place? Give reason in favour of your answer.
      2
    2. In a statistical investigation of 1003 families of a city, it was found that 63 families had neither a radio nor a TV, 794 families had a radio and 187 had a TV. How many families of the city selected in the sample had both?
      2
    3. The mean monthly income of a person is Rs. 18190/- and his mean monthly expenditure comes out to be Rs. 17930/-. What is his average monthly saving?
      2

UPSC Mains Paper 2009 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Question Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION-A

  1. Comment on any THREE of the following statements in not more than 200 words each:
    20 × 3 = 60

    1. ''The field of Public Administration is a field of business.'' (Woodrow Wilson)
    2. ''New Public Administration is .... a revolution or radicalism in words, and (at best) status-quo in skills or technologies.''
    3. ''Taylor's contribution was not a set of general principles for organising work efficiency, but a set of operating procedures that could be employed in each concrete situation to secure their application.''
    4. ''The Barnard-Simon Theory of Organisation is essentially a theory of motivation.''

  2. Answer the following in about 300 words each:
    30 × 2 = 60

    1. Consider the statements below:

    1. ''Technically, the bureaucracy represents the purest type of legal-rational authority.''
    2. ''Bureaucracy does not represent the only type of legal authority.''

    Identify the theoretical context and analyse the above statements.
  3. Which of the model(s) in development administration is/are characterised by 'Selectivism', 'Attainment' and 'Poly-functionalism'? Describe the corresponding theoretical roots and attributes.
  4. It is said that ''the perspective public administration, developed over a century, with a tradition of management of public institutions and services has received a jolt from the novelty of New Public Management''.
    Bring out the core values, approaches and assumptions of traditional public administration and show how the New Public Management has attempted to change or retain them, and to what extent.
    60
  5. From Woodrow Wilson to Herbert Simon most writers on administration have taken the achievement of efficiency as the central objective. Justify the statement with references to the work of major writers.
    60

    SECTION-B

  6. Answer any THREE of the following questions in not more than 200 words each:
    20 × 3 = 60

    1. ''There is no doubt that departmentalisation is fraught with complexities. These are in part technical, in part political.'' Discuss.
    2. ''Techniques like PERT and CPM help in effective office management.'' Elaborate.
    3. ''... non-western states often, if not always, have unbalanced politics, but these may not necessarily be bureaucratic politics.'' Discuss. ''Yehezkel Dror's normative models of policy making tend to be academic in perspective with poor operational utility.'' Comment.

  7. Consider the statements below:
  8. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) enable women to realise their full potential in some spheres of life.
  9. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are providing avenues of political mobilisation.
    Examine the implications of these two statements and assess the potential of SHGs for development.
    60

  10. It is said that 'position classification', as originally conceived is sound in terms of its operational characteristics, but complicated and unresponsive in practice. Why is it still considered better than other models of civil service classification?
    60

  11. ''... even if policies are well organized, efficiently operated, widely utilized, adequately financed and supported, we may still ask, so what? Do they work? .... What about their costs, outputs and impact?'' Discuss.
    60

    PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

    Paper II

    Time Allowed : Three Hours

    Maximum Marks : 300

    INSTRUCTIONS
    Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
    Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
    Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.
    The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
    SECTION-A

    1. Attempt any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:
      3 × 20 = 60

      1. ''Bureaucracy developed by the British stifled the village self-rule.'' Comment.
      2. Comment on the view that despite different contexts, administrative maxims of Kautilya's Arthashastra bear considerable similarity with features of Weber's ideal bureaucratic model.
      3. ''The weakest aspect of Indian administration is the grievance redressal machinery''. Discuss.
      4. ''There is no basic contradiction between Civil Service neutrality and Civil Service activism.'' Comment.

      1. ''Law and order problems of the twenty-first century cannot be tackled through legislations and structures of the nineteenth century.'' Give suggestions for transforming the law and order machinery at the State level.
        30

      2. ''The recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission on reforming the Civil Service are radical yet implementable.'' Do you agree?

      30

      1. Briefly discuss the main recommendations of any two of the following:
        30

        1. Paul Appleby (1953 and 1956)
        2. Santhanam Committee
        3. Hota Committee
        4. Sixth Pay Commission

      2. Examine the role of the Finance Ministry of the Union Government in designing and implementing monetary and fiscal policies.

      30

      1. Discuss the relationship between governance and development in any one Indian State, giving illustrations.
        30

      2. Do State Services suffer in comparison with the All-India and Central Services? Suggest measures for enhancing the role, competence and impact of State Services.

      30

      SECTION-B

    2. Comment on any three of the following statements in not more than 200 words each:
      3 × 20 = 60

      1. ''India has failed to devise a long-term strategy for drought management.''
      2. ''A fixed tenure in Civil Service postings can increase productivity, accountability, and probity in Government.''
      3. ''Sound municipal governance requires a cadre of specialized municipal services executives equal in status to State Services.''
      4. ''Administrative talent of a Minister determines his success.''

      1. ''The respective roles of the Cabinet Secretary of the Government of India and of the Chief Secretary of a State are similar in certain respects, and dissimilar in others.'' Explain.
        30

      2. Do you agree with the view that Citizens' Charters in India have not succeeded in their objective of making the administrative system citizen-centric? Analyze and give your suggestions in this regard.

      30

      1. ''The National Human Rights Commission has done as commendable job in developing a sense of responsibility among organizations towards the protection of human rights.'' Comment on this assessment.
        30

      2. In your view, which have been the five most important administrative reforms implemented after Independence? What has been their impact?

      1. ''Values of Indian administration must be rooted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.'' Discuss.
        30

      2. ''Many of the programmes of development being implemented at the State and the Local level have been initiated or financed by the Union Government. This has transformed the nature of Indian federalism''. Critically examine this assessment.

      30

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