Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) From 2011

The Prime Minister Manmohan Singh had last month approved the revamp of the preliminary exam on lines suggested by the Union Public Service Commission. The UPSC is further expected to push for changes in the Civil Service (Mains) Examination. But this will be only after examining the response to changes in the preliminary exam.
The UPSC had told the government two years ago there was a need to test not just the knowledge of aspirants in particular subjects but their aptitude for "a demanding life in the civil services". It had also recommended bringing down the number of attempts a candidate could take. But Dr. Singh has kept this aspect on hold.
Now the government has decided to replace the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination with the Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT), which will test candidates on their aptitude and analytical abilities rather than their ability to memorise.

“The CSAT is expected to come into effect from 2011,” Minister of State in the Ministry of Personnel, Prithviraj Chavan, told Lok Sabha on Wednesday 10 March – 2010.Confirming the change for the first stage of CSE, he told the Lok Sabha that the Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has approved the proposal for introduction of CSAT in place of the existing CS (Preliminary) Examination.
In his written reply, he said: "CSAT is expected to come into effect from CSE, 2011." The proposal to this effect was sent to the PMO last year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) which conducts CSE every year to select candidates for elite all-India services, including IAS, IPS, IFS, IRS and others Group 'A' and Group 'B' central jobs.
As of now, the change will be effective only for the first stage of the Civil Services Examination (CSE) from 2011 onwards. The second and third stages — CS (Main) Examination and interview respectively — may remain the same till a committee of experts goes into various aspects of the entire system and submits its report.
Officials familiar with the proposal which has got the PM's nod explained that the changes were suggested by various committees, including the second Administrative Reforms Commission, in their reports submitted over the years. Most of the panels had advocated laying greater emphasis on the "aptitude" of candidates than their knowledge of a subject, arguing that specialists or experts in any particular subject may not necessarily be good civil servants.

A top government official said UPSC chairman Professor D.P. Agrawal has constituted a high-powered committee - under former University Grants Commission vice-chairman Professor S.K. Khanna - to work out the details of the two papers. “The committee has been given time till April-end. Then the UPSC will discuss its recommendations with the government and finalise the content of the paper,” the official said.
Referring to introduction of CSAT, an official said: "The new system will also provide a level-playing field and equity, since all candidates will have to attempt common papers unlike the current format which provides for only one common paper.

Accordingly, the candidates will have to appear in two objective-type papers having special emphasis on testing their "aptitude for civil services" as well as on "ethical and moral dimension of decision-making" under a Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT). Both these papers — “having equal weightage” — will be “common to all candidates.”

At present the prelims consist of two papers: the first is on general studies and common to all; candidates can then choose the second paper from a list of two dozen-odd subjects. But now it is the second paper that will undergo a major change.

In Conclusion

- There shall be two objective type-papers carrying equal marks unlike present, in which General-Studies paper carries 150 marks and optional paper carries 300 marks. So now, it shall be like two papers carrying 150 marks each.

- Therefore, instead of one compulsory paper of General-Studies and one Optional paper, both the papers shall be compulsories.

- Therefore, both the papers will be common to all candidates and the UPSC gets rid of current scaling system which was challenged on one ground or other. The matter has been pending in Supreme Court for long. So now even the court also need not deliver her verdict on the matter. The problem of scaling is over and now no candidate will take any undue advantage over others because of particular optional of his or her choice.

- The compulsory paper other than General-Studies, will test “aptitude for civil services”. It means testing the ability of decision making without compromising with moral and ethical values. Therefore it is ability of value based decision making instead of taking just facts based decision. It will reflect the candidates ability to analyse than ability to memorise.
More clearly, it will be the test to sideline bookish candidates. The decision making ability or ability to analyse may be mostly judged from the topics of Public Administration. The moral and ethical aspects, of decision making may be judged from psychological parts like Motivation, Conflict-management, Administrative behaviour, Human behaviour, Psychology of individual as well as Social-psychology to understand crowd behaviour, Management by objectives and so on.

Altogether, the second objective paper may clubbed form of Pulic Administration, Psychology, Sociology, different economic situation, geographical conditions and technologies needed in the areas of security, intelligence, law and order, Revenue in regulating and controlling administration. It is to ensure result oriented civil servants rather than efforts oriented. The profile of this paper, as hinted by the UPSC, will be a very good blend of Public Administration, Psychology, Sociology, Information and Communication Technology, Economy, International deals and Diplomacy.

Finally, there shall not be any change in the Main Examination including Interview in 2011, as clarified by the minister concerned, on the floor of Lok-Sabha. The change in Main Examination will be made after examining the response to changes in the Preliminary Examination. This is, really, in accordance to “demanding life in presented civil services”.

Read more »

Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT)

The Prime Minister Manmohan Singh had last month approved the revamp of the preliminary exam on lines suggested by the Union Public Service Commission. The UPSC is further expected to push for changes in the Civil Service (Mains) Examination. But this will be only after examining the response to changes in the preliminary exam.
The UPSC had told the government two years ago there was a need to test not just the knowledge of aspirants in particular subjects but their aptitude for "a demanding life in the civil services". It had also recommended bringing down the number of attempts a candidate could take. But Dr. Singh has kept this aspect on hold.
Now the government has decided to replace the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination with the Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT), which will test candidates on their aptitude and analytical abilities rather than their ability to memorise.

“The CSAT is expected to come into effect from 2011,” Minister of State in the Ministry of Personnel, Prithviraj Chavan, told Lok Sabha on Wednesday 10 March – 2010.Confirming the change for the first stage of CSE, he told the Lok Sabha that the Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has approved the proposal for introduction of CSAT in place of the existing CS (Preliminary) Examination.
In his written reply, he said: "CSAT is expected to come into effect from CSE, 2011." The proposal to this effect was sent to the PMO last year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) which conducts CSE every year to select candidates for elite all-India services, including IAS, IPS, IFS, IRS and others Group 'A' and Group 'B' central jobs.
As of now, the change will be effective only for the first stage of the Civil Services Examination (CSE) from 2011 onwards. The second and third stages — CS (Main) Examination and interview respectively — may remain the same till a committee of experts goes into various aspects of the entire system and submits its report.
Officials familiar with the proposal which has got the PM's nod explained that the changes were suggested by various committees, including the second Administrative Reforms Commission, in their reports submitted over the years. Most of the panels had advocated laying greater emphasis on the "aptitude" of candidates than their knowledge of a subject, arguing that specialists or experts in any particular subject may not necessarily be good civil servants.

A top government official said UPSC chairman Professor D.P. Agrawal has constituted a high-powered committee - under former University Grants Commission vice-chairman Professor S.K. Khanna - to work out the details of the two papers. “The committee has been given time till April-end. Then the UPSC will discuss its recommendations with the government and finalise the content of the paper,” the official said.
Referring to introduction of CSAT, an official said: "The new system will also provide a level-playing field and equity, since all candidates will have to attempt common papers unlike the current format which provides for only one common paper.

Accordingly, the candidates will have to appear in two objective-type papers having special emphasis on testing their "aptitude for civil services" as well as on "ethical and moral dimension of decision-making" under a Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT). Both these papers — “having equal weightage” — will be “common to all candidates.”

At present the prelims consist of two papers: the first is on general studies and common to all; candidates can then choose the second paper from a list of two dozen-odd subjects. But now it is the second paper that will undergo a major change.

In Conclusion

- There shall be two objective type-papers carrying equal marks unlike present, in which General-Studies paper carries 150 marks and optional paper carries 300 marks. So now, it shall be like two papers carrying 150 marks each.

- Therefore, instead of one compulsory paper of General-Studies and one Optional paper, both the papers shall be compulsories.

- Therefore, both the papers will be common to all candidates and the UPSC gets rid of current scaling system which was challenged on one ground or other. The matter has been pending in Supreme Court for long. So now even the court also need not deliver her verdict on the matter. The problem of scaling is over and now no candidate will take any undue advantage over others because of particular optional of his or her choice.

- The compulsory paper other than General-Studies, will test “aptitude for civil services”. It means testing the ability of decision making without compromising with moral and ethical values. Therefore it is ability of value based decision making instead of taking just facts based decision. It will reflect the candidates ability to analyse than ability to memorise.
More clearly, it will be the test to sideline bookish candidates. The decision making ability or ability to analyse may be mostly judged from the topics of Public Administration. The moral and ethical aspects, of decision making may be judged from psychological parts like Motivation, Conflict-management, Administrative behaviour, Human behaviour, Psychology of individual as well as Social-psychology to understand crowd behaviour, Management by objectives and so on.

Altogether, the second objective paper may clubbed form of Pulic Administration, Psychology, Sociology, different economic situation, geographical conditions and technologies needed in the areas of security, intelligence, law and order, Revenue in regulating and controlling administration. It is to ensure result oriented civil servants rather than efforts oriented. The profile of this paper, as hinted by the UPSC, will be a very good blend of Public Administration, Psychology, Sociology, Information and Communication Technology, Economy, International deals and Diplomacy.

Finally, there shall not be any change in the Main Examination including Interview in 2011, as clarified by the minister concerned, on the floor of Lok-Sabha. The change in Main Examination will be made after examining the response to changes in the Preliminary Examination. This is, really, in accordance to “demanding life in presented civil services”.

Read more »

Civils New Pattern 2011

The Prime Minister Manmohan Singh had last month approved the revamp of the preliminary exam on lines suggested by the Union Public Service Commission. The UPSC is further expected to push for changes in the Civil Service (Mains) Examination. But this will be only after examining the response to changes in the preliminary exam.
The UPSC had told the government two years ago there was a need to test not just the knowledge of aspirants in particular subjects but their aptitude for "a demanding life in the civil services". It had also recommended bringing down the number of attempts a candidate could take. But Dr. Singh has kept this aspect on hold.
Now the government has decided to replace the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination with the Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT), which will test candidates on their aptitude and analytical abilities rather than their ability to memorise.

“The CSAT is expected to come into effect from 2011,” Minister of State in the Ministry of Personnel, Prithviraj Chavan, told Lok Sabha on Wednesday 10 March – 2010.Confirming the change for the first stage of CSE, he told the Lok Sabha that the Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has approved the proposal for introduction of CSAT in place of the existing CS (Preliminary) Examination.
In his written reply, he said: "CSAT is expected to come into effect from CSE, 2011." The proposal to this effect was sent to the PMO last year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) which conducts CSE every year to select candidates for elite all-India services, including IAS, IPS, IFS, IRS and others Group 'A' and Group 'B' central jobs.
As of now, the change will be effective only for the first stage of the Civil Services Examination (CSE) from 2011 onwards. The second and third stages — CS (Main) Examination and interview respectively — may remain the same till a committee of experts goes into various aspects of the entire system and submits its report.
Officials familiar with the proposal which has got the PM's nod explained that the changes were suggested by various committees, including the second Administrative Reforms Commission, in their reports submitted over the years. Most of the panels had advocated laying greater emphasis on the "aptitude" of candidates than their knowledge of a subject, arguing that specialists or experts in any particular subject may not necessarily be good civil servants.

A top government official said UPSC chairman Professor D.P. Agrawal has constituted a high-powered committee - under former University Grants Commission vice-chairman Professor S.K. Khanna - to work out the details of the two papers. “The committee has been given time till April-end. Then the UPSC will discuss its recommendations with the government and finalise the content of the paper,” the official said.
Referring to introduction of CSAT, an official said: "The new system will also provide a level-playing field and equity, since all candidates will have to attempt common papers unlike the current format which provides for only one common paper.

Accordingly, the candidates will have to appear in two objective-type papers having special emphasis on testing their "aptitude for civil services" as well as on "ethical and moral dimension of decision-making" under a Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT). Both these papers — “having equal weightage” — will be “common to all candidates.”

At present the prelims consist of two papers: the first is on general studies and common to all; candidates can then choose the second paper from a list of two dozen-odd subjects. But now it is the second paper that will undergo a major change.

In Conclusion

- There shall be two objective type-papers carrying equal marks unlike present, in which General-Studies paper carries 150 marks and optional paper carries 300 marks. So now, it shall be like two papers carrying 150 marks each.

- Therefore, instead of one compulsory paper of General-Studies and one Optional paper, both the papers shall be compulsories.

- Therefore, both the papers will be common to all candidates and the UPSC gets rid of current scaling system which was challenged on one ground or other. The matter has been pending in Supreme Court for long. So now even the court also need not deliver her verdict on the matter. The problem of scaling is over and now no candidate will take any undue advantage over others because of particular optional of his or her choice.

- The compulsory paper other than General-Studies, will test “aptitude for civil services”. It means testing the ability of decision making without compromising with moral and ethical values. Therefore it is ability of value based decision making instead of taking just facts based decision. It will reflect the candidates ability to analyse than ability to memorise.
More clearly, it will be the test to sideline bookish candidates. The decision making ability or ability to analyse may be mostly judged from the topics of Public Administration. The moral and ethical aspects, of decision making may be judged from psychological parts like Motivation, Conflict-management, Administrative behaviour, Human behaviour, Psychology of individual as well as Social-psychology to understand crowd behaviour, Management by objectives and so on.

Altogether, the second objective paper may clubbed form of Pulic Administration, Psychology, Sociology, different economic situation, geographical conditions and technologies needed in the areas of security, intelligence, law and order, Revenue in regulating and controlling administration. It is to ensure result oriented civil servants rather than efforts oriented. The profile of this paper, as hinted by the UPSC, will be a very good blend of Public Administration, Psychology, Sociology, Information and Communication Technology, Economy, International deals and Diplomacy.

Finally, there shall not be any change in the Main Examination including Interview in 2011, as clarified by the minister concerned, on the floor of Lok-Sabha. The change in Main Examination will be made after examining the response to changes in the Preliminary Examination. This is, really, in accordance to “demanding life in presented civil services”.

Read more »

Civil Services New Exam Pattern

The Prime Minister Manmohan Singh had last month approved the revamp of the preliminary exam on lines suggested by the Union Public Service Commission. The UPSC is further expected to push for changes in the Civil Service (Mains) Examination. But this will be only after examining the response to changes in the preliminary exam.
The UPSC had told the government two years ago there was a need to test not just the knowledge of aspirants in particular subjects but their aptitude for "a demanding life in the civil services". It had also recommended bringing down the number of attempts a candidate could take. But Dr. Singh has kept this aspect on hold.
Now the government has decided to replace the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination with the Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT), which will test candidates on their aptitude and analytical abilities rather than their ability to memorise.

“The CSAT is expected to come into effect from 2011,” Minister of State in the Ministry of Personnel, Prithviraj Chavan, told Lok Sabha on Wednesday 10 March – 2010.Confirming the change for the first stage of CSE, he told the Lok Sabha that the Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has approved the proposal for introduction of CSAT in place of the existing CS (Preliminary) Examination.
In his written reply, he said: "CSAT is expected to come into effect from CSE, 2011." The proposal to this effect was sent to the PMO last year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) which conducts CSE every year to select candidates for elite all-India services, including IAS, IPS, IFS, IRS and others Group 'A' and Group 'B' central jobs.
As of now, the change will be effective only for the first stage of the Civil Services Examination (CSE) from 2011 onwards. The second and third stages — CS (Main) Examination and interview respectively — may remain the same till a committee of experts goes into various aspects of the entire system and submits its report.
Officials familiar with the proposal which has got the PM's nod explained that the changes were suggested by various committees, including the second Administrative Reforms Commission, in their reports submitted over the years. Most of the panels had advocated laying greater emphasis on the "aptitude" of candidates than their knowledge of a subject, arguing that specialists or experts in any particular subject may not necessarily be good civil servants.

A top government official said UPSC chairman Professor D.P. Agrawal has constituted a high-powered committee - under former University Grants Commission vice-chairman Professor S.K. Khanna - to work out the details of the two papers. “The committee has been given time till April-end. Then the UPSC will discuss its recommendations with the government and finalise the content of the paper,” the official said.
Referring to introduction of CSAT, an official said: "The new system will also provide a level-playing field and equity, since all candidates will have to attempt common papers unlike the current format which provides for only one common paper.

Accordingly, the candidates will have to appear in two objective-type papers having special emphasis on testing their "aptitude for civil services" as well as on "ethical and moral dimension of decision-making" under a Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT). Both these papers — “having equal weightage” — will be “common to all candidates.”

At present the prelims consist of two papers: the first is on general studies and common to all; candidates can then choose the second paper from a list of two dozen-odd subjects. But now it is the second paper that will undergo a major change.

In Conclusion

- There shall be two objective type-papers carrying equal marks unlike present, in which General-Studies paper carries 150 marks and optional paper carries 300 marks. So now, it shall be like two papers carrying 150 marks each.

- Therefore, instead of one compulsory paper of General-Studies and one Optional paper, both the papers shall be compulsories.

- Therefore, both the papers will be common to all candidates and the UPSC gets rid of current scaling system which was challenged on one ground or other. The matter has been pending in Supreme Court for long. So now even the court also need not deliver her verdict on the matter. The problem of scaling is over and now no candidate will take any undue advantage over others because of particular optional of his or her choice.

- The compulsory paper other than General-Studies, will test “aptitude for civil services”. It means testing the ability of decision making without compromising with moral and ethical values. Therefore it is ability of value based decision making instead of taking just facts based decision. It will reflect the candidates ability to analyse than ability to memorise.
More clearly, it will be the test to sideline bookish candidates. The decision making ability or ability to analyse may be mostly judged from the topics of Public Administration. The moral and ethical aspects, of decision making may be judged from psychological parts like Motivation, Conflict-management, Administrative behaviour, Human behaviour, Psychology of individual as well as Social-psychology to understand crowd behaviour, Management by objectives and so on.

Altogether, the second objective paper may clubbed form of Pulic Administration, Psychology, Sociology, different economic situation, geographical conditions and technologies needed in the areas of security, intelligence, law and order, Revenue in regulating and controlling administration. It is to ensure result oriented civil servants rather than efforts oriented. The profile of this paper, as hinted by the UPSC, will be a very good blend of Public Administration, Psychology, Sociology, Information and Communication Technology, Economy, International deals and Diplomacy.

Finally, there shall not be any change in the Main Examination including Interview in 2011, as clarified by the minister concerned, on the floor of Lok-Sabha. The change in Main Examination will be made after examining the response to changes in the Preliminary Examination. This is, really, in accordance to “demanding life in presented civil services”.

Read more »

UPSC ESSAY PAPER(Compulsory)-2009

ESSAY (Compulsory)-2009

Time Allowed:Three Hours

Maximum Marks:200

INSTRUCTIONS
The essay must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you. The name of the medium must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No credit will be given to the essay written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

(Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate's grasp of his material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think constructively and to present his ideas concisely, logically and effectively.)

Write an essay on any one of the following topics :

200

1. Are our traditional handicrafts doomed to a slow death?
2. Are we a 'soft' state?
3. ''The focus of health care is increasingly getting skewed towards the 'haves' of our society.''
4. 'Good fences make good neighbours.''
5. 'Globalism' vs. 'Nationalism'

Read more »

UPSC ESSAY PAPER(Compulsory)-2009

ESSAY (Compulsory)-2009

Time Allowed:Three Hours

Maximum Marks:200

INSTRUCTIONS
The essay must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you. The name of the medium must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No credit will be given to the essay written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

(Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate's grasp of his material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think constructively and to present his ideas concisely, logically and effectively.)

Write an essay on any one of the following topics :

200

1. Are our traditional handicrafts doomed to a slow death?
2. Are we a 'soft' state?
3. ''The focus of health care is increasingly getting skewed towards the 'haves' of our society.''
4. 'Good fences make good neighbours.''
5. 'Globalism' vs. 'Nationalism'

Read more »

UPSC GENERAL STUDIES - 2008 ( Prelims)

GENERAL STUDIES - 2008
(Preliminary)

Time Allowed:Two Hours

Maximum Marks:150

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

   List-I (Person)	List-II (Position)
   A. Nagendar Singh	1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
   B. A. N. Ray	2. President, International Court of Justice
   C. R. K. Trivedi	3. Chief Justice of India
   D. Ashok Desai	4. Attorney General of India

   
   

   	A	B	C	D
   a	1	4	2	3
   b	2	3	1	4
   c	1	3	2	4
   b	2	4	1	3

   
   
2. Consider the following statements :
   1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
   2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than the albedo of the Earth.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   
   
3. Consider the following statements about probiotic food :
   1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.
   2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
   Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
   
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   
   
4. Yom Kippur War was fought between which sides/countries?
   1. Turkey and Greece
   2. Serbs and Croats
   3. Israel, and Arab countries led by Egypt and Syria
   4. Iran and Iraq
   
   
5. Norman Ernest Borlaug who is regarded as the father of the Green Revolution in India is from which country?
   1. United States of America
   2. Mexico
   3. Australia
   4. New Zealand
   
   
6. In which one of the following states are Namchik-Namphuk coal fields located?
   1. Arunachal Pradesh
   2. Meghalaya
   3. Manipur
   4. Mizoram
   
   
7. Which one of the following is correct in respect of Indian football team's performance in the Olympic Games?
   1. India has never participated in the Olympic Football Tournament
   2. India played only in the First Round
   3. India entered only up to the Quarter Finals
   4. India entered the Semi Finals
   
   
8. Which was the capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate state in the year 1953?
   1. Guntur
   2. Kurnool
   3. Nellore
   4. Warangal
   
   
9. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice President of India?
   1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
   2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
   3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
   4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
   
   Select the correct answer using the code given below :
   
   1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
   2. 1 and 4 only
   3. 2 and 3 only
   4. 3 and 4 only
   
   
10. What is the pH level of blood of normal person?
    1. 4.5–4.6
    2. 6.45–6.55
    3. 7.35–7.45
    4. 8.25–8.35
    
    
11. C. Rangarajan has been actively involved in the Pan-Asian Commission addressing to which one of the following issues?
    1. Promotion of tourism in the Asian region
    2. Impact of HIV/AIDS in the Asian region
    3. Promotion of free trade in the Asian region
    4. Higher technical education in the universities in the Asian region
    
    
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

    List-I (Service/Agency)	List-II (Country)
    A. Foreign Intelligence Service	1. Israel
    B. Ministry of State Security	2. Britain
    C. Secret Intelligence Service	3. China
    D. The Mossad	4. Russia

    
    

    	A	B	C	D
    a	4	1	2	3
    b	2	3	4	1
    c	4	3	2	1
    d	2	1	4	3

    
    
13. ISRO successfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test-stand used for the purpose, located?
    1. Balasore
    2. Thiruvananthapuram
    3. Mahendragiri
    4. Karwar
    
    
14. In which one of the following is Malta located?
    1. Baltic Sea
    2. Mediterranean Sea
    3. Black Sea
    4. North Sea
    
    
15. Starting with the Australian Open Lawn Tennis tournament, which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the other three major Lawn Tennis Tournaments?
    1. French Open - US Open - Wimbledon
    2. French Open - Wimbledon - US Open
    3. Wimbledon - US Open - French Open
    4. Wimbledon - French Open - US Open
    
    
16. Among the following, which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
    1. Echidna
    2. Kangaroo
    3. Porcupine
    4. Whale
    
    
17. The release of which one of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes?
    1. Crab
    2. Dogfish
    3. Gambusia fish
    4. Snail
    
    
18. Which Schedule of the constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several states?
    1. Third
    2. Fifth
    3. Seventh
    4. Ninth
    
    
19. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?
    1. Ministry of Defence
    2. Ministry of Home Affairs
    3. Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
    4. Ministry of Environment and Forests
    
    
20. For which one of the following reforms was a commission set up under the chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?
    1. Police Reforms
    2. Tax Reforms
    3. Reforms in Technical Education
    4. Administrative Reforms
    
    
21. Elizabeth Hawley is well-known for her writings relating to which one of the following?
    1. Historical monuments in India
    2. Regional dances in India
    3. Himalayan expeditions
    4. Wildlife in India
    
    
22. In India, how many states share the coastline?
    1. 7
    2. 8
    3. 9
    4. 10
    
    
23. Nobel prize winning scientist James D. Watson is known for his work in which area?
    1. Metallurgy
    2. Meteorology
    3. Environmental protection
    4. Genetics
    
    
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

    List-I (Board)	List-II (Headquarters)
    A. Coffee Board	1. Bengaluru
    B. Rubber Board	2. Guntur
    C. Tea Board	3. Kottayam
    D. Tobacco Board	4. Kolkata

    
    

    	A	B	C	D
    a	2	4	3	1
    b	1	3	4	2
    c	2	3	4	1
    d	1	4	3	2

    
    
25. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
    1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    2. Arunachal Pradesh
    3. Assam
    4. Meghalaya
    
    
26. Among the following, which one is not an ape?
    1. Gibbon
    2. Gorilla
    3. Langur
    4. Orangutan
    
    
27. >>>>>Diagram>>>>>> >>>>>Diagram>>>>>>>
    In how many different ways can all of 5 identical balls be placed in the cells shown above such that each row contains at least 1 ball?
    
    1. 64
    2. 81
    3. 84
    4. 108
    
    
28. There are 6 different letters and 6 correspondingly addressed envelopes. If the letters are randomly put in the envelopes, what is the probability that exactly 5 letters go into the correctly addressed envelopes?
    1. zero
    2. 1/6
    3. 1/2
    4. 5/6
    
    
29. >>>>>Diagram>>>>>> >>>>>Diagram>>>>>>>
    There are two identical red, two identical black and two identical white balls. In how many different ways can the balls be placed in the cells (each cell to contain one ball) shown above such that balls of the same colour do not occupy any two consecutive cells?
    
    1. 15
    2. 18
    3. 24
    4. 30
    
    
30. >>>>>Diagram>>>>>> >>>>>Diagram>>>>>>>
    How many different triangles are there in the figure shown above?
    
    1. 28
    2. 24
    3. 20
    4. 16
    
    
31. Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched?
    1. Francis Collins : Mapping human genome
    2. Sergey Brin : Google Search Engine
    3. Jimmy Wales : Wikipedia
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2, and 3
    
    
32. What does S&P 500 relate to?
    1. Super computer
    2. A new technique in e-business
    3. A new technique in bridge building
    4. An index of stocks of large companies
    
    
33. Rajiv Gandhi National Flying Institute is being established in which state?
    1. Karnataka
    2. Maharashtra
    3. Kerala
    4. Orissa
    
    
34. Who among the following has been the captain of the Indian team in Cricket Test Matches for the maximum number of times?
    1. Sunil Gavaskar
    2. Mansur Ali Khan Pataudi
    3. Saurav Ganguly
    4. Mohammad Azharuddin
    
    
35. Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e Azadi?
    1. Sahir Ludhiyanvi
    2. Faiz Ahmed Faiz
    3. Muhammad Iqbal
    4. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
    
    
36. How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometres?
    1. 183 × 106 nanometres
    2. 234 × 106 nanometres
    3. 183 × 107 nanometres
    4. 234 × 107 nanometres
    
    
37. A person is sitting in a car which is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary?
    1. It will be greater than R
    2. It will less than R
    3. It will be equal to R
    4. It shall depend on the material of the road
    
    
38. With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?
    1. Chambal
    2. Narmada
    3. Tapi
    4. Bhima
    
    
39. Consider the following statements :
    1. The Nuclear Suppliers Group has 24 countries as its members.
    2. India is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
    
    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
40. In the context of the Indian defence, what is 'Dhruv'?
    1. Aircraft - carrying warship
    2. Missile - carrying submarine
    3. Advanced light helicopter
    4. Intercontinental ballistic missile
    
    
41. 'Hand-in-Hand 2007', a joint anti-terrorism military training was held by the officers of the Indian Army and officers of Army of which one of the following countries?
    1. China
    2. Japan
    3. Russia
    4. USA
    
    Directions: The following 4 (Four) items consist two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers to these items using the codes given below :
    1. Both A and R are individually true and a R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true but R is false
    4. A is false but R is true
    
    
42. Assertion (A): In human body, liver has an important role in fat digestion.
    Reason (R): Liver produces two importance fat-digesting enzymes.
    
    
43. Assertion (A): In the visible spectrum of light, red light is more energetic than green light.
    Reason (R): The wavelength of red light is more than that of green light.
    
    
44. Assertion (A): Radio waves bend in a magnetic field.
    Reason (R): Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature.
    
    
45. Assertion (A): The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939.
    Reason (R): The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the context of the Second World War.
    
    
46. Where was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?
    1. Ahmadabad
    2. Bombay
    3. Calcutta
    4. Delhi
    
    
47. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abdul Kalam Azad?
    1. Al-Hilal
    2. Comrade
    3. The Indian Sociologist
    4. Zamindar
    
    
48. Who among the following Gandhian followers was a teacher by profession?
    1. A. N. Sinha
    2. Braj Kishore Prasad
    3. J. B. Kriplani
    4. Rajendra Prasad
    
    
49. How much is one barrel of oil approximately equal to?
    1. 131 litres
    2. 159 litres
    3. 257 litres
    4. 321 litres
    
    
50. Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest metal, respectively?
    1. Lithium and mercury
    2. Lithium and osmium
    3. Aluminium and osmium
    4. Aluminium and mercury
    
    
51. Mixture of which one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence of most of the explosions in mines?
    1. Hydrogen and oxygen
    2. Oxygen and acetylene
    3. Methane and air
    4. Carbon dioxide and methane
    
    
52. Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?
    1. Argon
    2. Neon
    3. Xenon
    4. Nitrous oxide
    
    
53. What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?
    1. Silicon dioxide
    2. Aluminium oxide
    3. Lead tetroxide
    4. Boron nitride
    
    
54. Consider the following statements :
    1. A widely used musical scale called diatonic scale has seven frequencies.
    2. The frequency of the note Sa is 256 Hz and that of Ni is 512 Hz.
    
    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
55. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
    1. Dye laser
    2. Gas laser
    3. Semiconductor laser
    4. Excimer laser
    
    
56. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket?
    1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion is space.
    2. A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
57. Among the following, which one has the minimum population on the basis of data of Census of India, 2001?
    1. Chandigarh
    2. Mizoram
    3. Puducherry
    4. Sikkim
    
    
58. Who among the following translated the Autobiography of Madam Curie in Hindi?
    1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
    3. Choudhary Charan Singh
    4. Gobind Vallabh Pant
    
    
59. Who among the following scientists shared the Nobel Prize in Physics with his son?
    1. Max Planck
    2. Albert Einstein
    3. William Henry Bragg
    4. Enrico Fermi
    
    
60. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in respect of the Roman numerals - C, D, L and M?
    1. C > D > L > M
    2. M > L > D > C
    3. M > D > C > L
    4. L > C > D > M
    
    
61. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutra) relate to?
    1. Lengths of sides of a right-angled triangle
    2. Calculation of the value of pi
    3. Logarithmic calculations
    4. Normal distribution curve
    
    
62. Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched? Theory/ Law Associated Scientist
    1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble
    2. Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener
    3. Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein
63. Which of the following minerals are found in a natural way in the state of Chhattisgarh?
    1. Bauxite
    2. Dolomite
    3. Iron ore
    4. Tin
    
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    
    
64. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
    1. Alaknanda
    2. Bhagirathi
    3. Dhauliganga
    4. Mandakini
    
    
65. Which one of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
    1. Colombo
    2. Jakarta
    3. Manila
    4. Singapore
    
    
66. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Waterfalls River
    1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
    2. Jog Falls : Sharavati
    3. Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery
    
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    
    
67. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?
    1. Malacca Strait
    2. Bering Strait
    3. Strait of Florida
    4. Strait of Gibraltar
    
    
68. Which of the following pairs in respect of correct power generation in India is/are correctly matched? (Round Figure)
    1. Installed electricity generation capacity : 100000 MW
    2. Electricity generation : 660 billion kWh
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
69. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Irrigation Project State
    1. Damanganga : Gujarat
    2. Girna : Maharashtra
    3. Pamba : Kerala
    
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    
    
70. Who among the following rejected the title of Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India?
    1. Motilal Nehru
    2. M. G. Ranade
    3. G. K. Gokhale
    4. B. G. Tilak
    
    
71. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India?
    1. Akbar
    2. Jahangir
    3. Shahjahan
    4. Aurangzeb
    
    
72. The term ''Prisoner's Dilemma'' is associated with which one of the following?
    1. A technique is glass manufacture
    2. A term used in shipping industry
    3. A situation under the Game Theory
    4. Name of a super computer
    
    
73. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called 'Free Indian Legion'?
    1. Lala Hardayal
    2. Rashbehari Bose
    3. Subhas Chandra Bose
    4. V. D. Savarkar
    
    
74. Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy's Executive Council in which all the portfolios including that of of War Members were to be held by the Indian leaders?
    1. Simon Commission
    2. Simla Conference
    3. Cripps Proposal
    4. Cabinet Mission
    
    
75. What is Agent Orange?
    1. An ace spying group trained by the Police in London
    2. A weed-killing chemical used by the US Military in the Vietnam War
    3. A technique used in the advanced railway safety procedure
    4. A special chemical used in making alloy steel
    
    
76. Which two countries follow China and India in the decreasing order of their populations?
    1. Brazil and USA
    2. USA and Indonesia
    3. Canada and Malaysia
    4. Russia and Nigeria
    
    
77. Amongst the following states, which one has the highest percentage of rural population to its total population (on the basis of the Census, 2001)?
    1. Himachal Pradesh
    2. Bihar
    3. Orissa
    4. Uttar Pradesh
    
    
78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

    List-I (Organization)	List-II (Associated Convention/ Person/ Place/ Headquarters)
    A. Amnesty International	1. Viskuli
    B. Common wealth of Independent States (CIS)	2. Paris
    C. Danube Commission	3. Peter Benenson
    D. European Space Agency	4. Belgrade Convention

    
    

    	A	B	C	D
    a	3	1	4	2
    b	4	2	3	1
    c	3	2	4	1
    d	4	1	3	2

    
    
79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

    List-I (Person)	List-II (Area)
    A. K. P. Singh	1. Banking
    B. Vikram Pandit	2. Fiction writing
    C. Roopa Farooki	3. Retail business
    D. Kishore Biyani	4. Real estate

    
    

    	A	B	C	D
    a	4	2	3	1
    b	3	1	2	4
    c	3	2	1	4
    d	4	1	2	3

    
    
80. Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio + 10) held?
    1. Davos
    2. Nova Scotia
    3. Johannesburg
    4. Shanghai
    
    
81. Consider the following statements :
    1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits in one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
    2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.
    
    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
82. Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
    1. Ludhiana
    2. Kochi
    3. Surat
    4. Nagpur
    
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    
    
83. Which of the following are the public sector undertakings of the Government of India?
    1. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.
    2. Dredging Corporation of India
    3. Educational Consultants of India Ltd.
    
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    
    
84. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under raising their number to 22?
    1. Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
    2. Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
    3. Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
    4. Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
    
    
85. Consider the following statements :
    The Constitution of India provides that
    
    1. The Legislative Assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state
    2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a state if he/ she is less than 25 years of age
    
    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
86. Which of the following is/ are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
    1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
    2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
    
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2 only
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
87. How is the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference wherein the agreements were signed to set up IBRD, GATT and IMF, commonly known?
    1. Bandung Conference
    2. Bretton Woods Conference
    3. Versailles Conference
    4. Yalta Conference
    
    
88. Where was the first desalination plant in India to produce one lakh litres freshwater per day based on low temperature thermal desalination principle commissioned?
    1. Kavaratti
    2. Port Blair
    3. Mangalore
    4. Valsad
    
    
89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Institute Location
    1. National Centre for Cell : Mysore
    2. Centre for DNA Fingerprinting : Hyderabad and Diagnostics
    3. National Brain Research Centre : Gurgaon
    
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 3 only
    
    
90. With which one of the following is BRIT (Government of India) engaged?
    1. Railway Wagons
    2. Information Technology
    3. Isotope Technology
    4. Road Transport
    
    
91. Who among the following used the phrase 'Un-British' to criticize the English colonial control of India?
    1. Anandmohan Bose
    2. Badruddin Tyabji
    3. Dadabhai Naoroji
    4. Pherozeshah Mehta
    
    
92. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled New Lamps for old?
    1. Aurobindo Ghosh
    2. R. C. Dutt
    3. Syed Ahmad Khan
    4. Viraraghavachari
    
    
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

    List-I (Author)	List-II (Work)
    A. Bakimchandra	1. Shatranj Ke Khilari
    B. Dinabandhu Mitra	2. Debi Chaudhurani
    C. Premchand	3. Nil-Darpan
    	4. Chandrakanta

    
    

    	A	B	C
    a	2	4	1
    b	3	4	2
    c	2	3	1
    d	3	1	4

    
    
94. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Projects located?
    1. Madhya Pradesh
    2. Uttar Pradesh
    3. Uttarakhand
    4. Rajasthan
    
    
95. How is Sarosh Zaiwalla well-known as?
    1. A leading theatre personality
    2. A leading wildlife photographer
    3. A leading international legal expert
    4. A leading orthopaedic surgeon
    
    
96. Bimbavati Devi is a well-known dancer of which type of dance?
    1. Manipuri
    2. Bharat Natyam
    3. Kuchipudi
    4. Odissi
    
    
97. Consider the following statements :
    1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
    2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee-producing region.
    
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
98. Ebraham Alkazi is an eminent personality in which one of the following areas?
    1. Heart surgery
    2. Civil aviation
    3. Theatre training
    4. Transport engineering
    
    
99. Consider the following statements :
    1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
    2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
    
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    
    
100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

     List-I (Person)	List-II (Area)
     A. Sabyasachi Mukherjee	1. Microfinance loans
     B. Aniruddha Bahal	2. Pharmaceuticals
     C. Vikram Akula	3. Fashion designing
     D. Yusuf Hamied	4. Investigation journalism

     
     

     	A	B	C	D
     a	1	2	3	4
     b	3	4	2	1
     c	1	4	3	2
     d	3	2	1	4

     
     
101. For India, China, the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the median age of their populations?
     1. China <>
     2. India <>
     3. China <>
     4. India <>
     
     
102. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?
     1. Kangra
     2. Ladakh
     3. Kachchh
     4. Bhilwara
     
     
103. Consider the following statements :
     1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE.
     2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdon to join the UAE.
     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
     1. 1 only
     2. 2 only
     3. Both 1 and 2
     4. Neither 1 nor 2
     
     
104. India is a member of which of the following?
     1. Asian Development Bank
     2. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
     3. Colombo Plan
     4. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
     
     Select the correct answer using the code given below :
     1. 1 and 3 only
     2. 2 and 4 only
     3. 1, 2 and 3 only
     4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
     
     
105. Which of the following countries share borders with Moldova?
     1. Ukraine
     2. Romania
     3. Belarus
     
     Select the correct answer using the code given below :
     1. 1 and 2 only
     2. 2 and 3 only
     3. 1 and 3 only
     4. 1, 2 and 3
     
     
106. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have recognized on the World Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them?
     1. Gulf of Mannar
     2. Kanchejunga
     3. Nanda Devi
     4. Sunderbans
     
     
107. What is the purpose of the US Space Agency's Themis Mission, which was recently in the news?
     1. To study the possibility of life on Mars
     2. To study the satellites of Saturn
     3. To study the colourful display of high latitude skies
     4. To build a space laboratory to study the stellar explosions
     
     
108. In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?
     1. Northern Spain
     2. Southern France
     3. Eastern Germany
     4. Southern Italy
     
     
109. Which one of the following is a spacecraft?
     1. Apophis
     2. Cassini
     3. Spitzer
     4. TechSar
     
     
110. What is teh approximate percentage of persons above 65 years of age in India's current population?
     1. 14-15%
     2. 11-12%
     3. 8-9%
     4. 5-6%
     
     
111. In the year 2007, an earthquake led to massive radioactive water leakage in the largest nuclear plant in the world. In which country did it occur?
     1. Germany
     2. Canada
     3. Japan
     4. USA
     
     
112. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?
     1. Lord Irwin
     2. Lord Reading
     3. Lord Chelmsford
     4. Lord Wavell
     
     
113. Cristina Kirchner succeeded her husband to become president of a South American country. Which is that country?
     1. Chile
     2. Argentina
     3. Colombia
     4. Venezuela
     
     
114. In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
     1. Earth and Jupiter
     2. Jupiter and Saturn
     3. Saturn and Earth
     4. Saturn and Neptune
     
     
115. Which one of the following countries won the Euro Football Tournament, 2004 held in Portugal?
     1. Italy
     2. France
     3. Greece
     4. Portugal
     
     
116. Near which one of the following cities are Palitana Temples located?
     1. Bhavnagar
     2. Mount Abu
     3. Nasik
     4. Ujjain
     
     
117. Ogaden region has been a source of conflict between which countries?
     1. Morocco and Algeria
     2. Nigeria and Cameroon
     3. Angola and Zambia
     4. Ethiopia and Somalia
     
     
118. Kim Dae-Jung won the Noble Prize for Peace. He is from which one of the following countries?
     1. Vietnam
     2. Cambodia
     3. South Korea
     4. Japan
     
     
119. Who among the following discovered heavy water?
     1. Heinrich Hertz
     2. H.C. Urey
     3. G. Mendel
     4. Joseph Priestley
     
     
120. Among the Indian languages, which one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi?
     1. Telugu
     2. Tamil
     3. Bengali
     4. Malayalam
     
     
121. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
     1. Passion flower plant
     2. Pitcher plant
     3. Night queen
     4. Flame of the forest
     
     
122. For which one of the following snakes is the diet mainly composed of other snakes?
     1. Krait
     2. Russell's viper
     3. Rattlesnake
     4. King cobra
     
     
123. In which one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills male after copulation?
     1. Dragonfly
     2. Honeybee
     3. Spider
     4. Pit viper
     
     
124. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one state (Union Territories not included)?
     1. 2
     2. 3
     3. 4
     4. 5
     
     
125. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?
     1. Brazil
     2. China
     3. India
     4. USA
     
     
126. Consider the following statements :
     1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
     2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.
     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
     1. 1 only
     2. 2 only
     3. Both 1 and 2
     4. Neither 1 nor 2
     
     
127. Consider the following pairs : Tributory River Main River
     1. Chambal : Narmada
     2. Sone : Yamuna
     3. Manas : Brahmaputra
     
     Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
     1. 1, 2 and 3
     2. 1 and 2 only
     3. 2 and 3 only
     4. 3 only
     
     
128. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?
     1. Anaimalai Hills
     2. Cardamom Hills
     3. Nilgiri Hills
     4. Shevoroy Hills
     
     
129. Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayn vegetation?
     1. Juniper
     2. Mahogany
     3. Silver fir
     4. Spruce
     
     
130. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in teh National Flag of India?
     1. 16
     2. 18
     3. 22
     4. 24
     
     
131. Consider the following :
     1. Rice fields
     2. Coal mining
     3. Domestic animals
     4. Wetlands
     
     Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?
     1. 1 and 4 only
     2. 2 and 3 only
     3. 1, 2 and 3 only
     4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
     
     
132. From which one of the following did India by the Barak anti-missile defence systems?
     1. Israel
     2. France
     3. Russia
     4. USA
     
     
133. Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the following?
     1. China
     2. European Union
     3. Japan
     4. USA
     
     
134. Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following have been included in the UNESCO's Memory of World Register?
     1. Abhidhamma Pitaka
     2. Mahabharata
     3. Ramayana
     4. Rig-Veda
     
     
135. Consider the following statements :
     1. Orange Prize is awarded to a work of published fiction in English by a woman.
     2. Pulitzer Prize is awarded by the Commonwealth Foundation to a citizen of any Commonwealth country for any literary work in English.
     
     Which of the statements given is/are correct?
     1. 1 only
     2. 2 only
     3. Both 1 and 2
     4. Neither 1 nor 2
     
     
136. In the series
     AABABCABCDABCDE ..........
     Which letter occupies 100th position?
     1. H
     2. I
     3. J
     4. K
     
     
137. What is the number of terms in the series 117, 120, 123, 126, ....., 333?
     1. 72
     2. 73
     3. 76
     4. 79
     
     
138. In how many different ways can four books, A, B, C and D be arranged one above another in a vertical order such that the books A and B are never in continuous position?
     1. 9
     2. 12
     3. 14
     4. 18
     
     
139. Carpenter A can make a chair in 6 hours, carpenter B in 7 hours and carpenter C in 8 hours. If each carpenter works for 8 hours per day, how many chairs will be made in 21 days?
     1. 61
     2. 67
     3. 73
     4. 79
     
     
140. A person purchases 100 pens at a discount of 10%. The net amount of money spent by the person to purchase the pens is Rs. 600. The selling expenses incurred by the person are 15% on the net cost price. What should be the selling price for 100 pens in order to earn a profit of 25%?
     1. Rs. 802.50
     2. Rs. 811.25
     3. Rs. 862.50
     4. Rs. 875
     
     
141. A school teacher has to select the maximum possible number of different groups of 3 students out of a total of 6 students. In how many groups any particular student will be included?
     1. 6
     2. 8
     3. 10
     4. 12
     
     
142. In an examination, 70% of the students passed in the Paper I, and 60% of the students passed in the Paper II. 15% of the students failed in both the papers while 270 students passed in both the papers. What is the total number of students?
     1. 600
     2. 580
     3. 560
     4. 540
     
     
143. What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?
     1. A medical test for detecting cancer
     2. A test for testing the use of drugs to improve performance by athletes
     3. A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials
     4. A special type of alloy steel
     
     
144. Which of the following pairs about India's economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched?
     1. GDP per capita (current prices) : Rs. 37,000
     2. Rice : 180 million tons
     3. Wheat : 75 million tons
     
     Select the correct answer using the code given below :
     1. 1, 2 and 3
     2. 1 and 2 only
     3. 2 and 3 only
     4. 1 and 3 only
     
     
145. March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March1, 2002?
     1. Thursday
     2. Friday
     3. Saturday
     4. Sunday
     
     
146. In August 2006, the Government of India notified the Rural Electrification Policy. This policy aims at provision of access to all households by which year?
     1. 2008
     2. 2009
     3. 2010
     4. 2012
     
     
147. As per India's National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?
     1. 2025
     2. 2035
     3. 2045
     4. 2055
     
     
148. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?
     1. Ministry of Agriculture
     2. Ministry of Science and Technology
     3. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
     4. Ministry of Rural Development
     
     
149. Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOPAS) :
     1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
     2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of Rs. 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.
     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
     1. 1 only
     2. 2 only
     3. Both 1 and 2
     4. Neither 1 nor 2
     
     
150. What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and non-traditional trades?
     1. Kishori Shakti Yojna
     2. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
     3. Swayamsiddha
     4. Swawlamban

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UPSC GENERAL STUDIES Mains Paper 2008

GENERAL STUDIES
(MAIN)

2008 PAPER-I

Time Allowed:Three Hours

Maximum Marks:300

Instructions

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
   15 × 2 = 30
   1. "The emergencce of new social classes in British India was the direct consequence of the establishment of new social economy, new state system, administrative machinery and Western education." Discuss.
   2. "British vision of India had no single coherent set of ideas. On the contraty, the ideas were shot through with contradictions and inconsistencies." Discuss.
   3. "Non-Cooperation Movement gave new direction and energy to the National Movement." Expalin.
   
   
2. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each):
   2 × 15 = 30
   1. Lakshmi Bai, Rani of Jhansi
   2. Ilbert Bill
   3. Lala Hara Dayal
   4. Vaikam Satyagraha
   5. Indian States Commission
   6. Bodhisattva
   7. Megasthenes
   8. Brihadeshwara Temple, Tanjore
   9. Perini Shivatandavam
   10. Allasani Peddana
   11. Golkonda Fort (l) Chishti Silsila
   12. Chouth and Sardeshmukhi
   13. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
   14. 'Rama Sethu'
   
   
3. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
   15 × 2 = 30
   1. The winter rains in North India are largely related to Jet Streams and Western Distubances. Bring out the relationship.
   2. Agricultural Productivity in India remain low. Explain the reasons for this situation.
   3. Bring out the pros and cons of Special Economiz Zones.
   
   
4. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each):
   2 × 5 = 10
   1. Buckingham Canal
   2. Terai Region
   3. Organic Farming
   4. Demographic Dividend
   5. Nor'westers
   
   
5. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words ):
   30
   1. What is meant by 'Judicial Activism'? Evaluate its role in the context of the funtioning of Indian Polity.
   2. Discuss the major extra-constitutional factors influencing the federal polity in India.
   
   
6. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
   15 × 2 = 30
   1. Enumerate the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution after the 42nd Amendment.
   2. Examine the demand for greater state automomy and its impact on the smooth functioning of indian polity.
   3. Discuss the composition and functions of the Union Public Service Commission.
   
   
7. Answer the following (in about 20 words each):
   2 × 5 = 10
   1. What is a Censure Motion?
   2. Distinguish between the auditing and accounting functions of the CAG of India.
   3. Distinguish between a starred question and an unstarred one asked in the Parliament.
   4. What is comtempt of Parliament?
   5. What were teh two major considerations to have the Governor appointed and not elected?
   
   
8. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words):
   30
   1. What, in your opinion, are the causes of terrorism? Suggest suitable measures to deal with the threat of terrorism in India.
   2. Do you think there is a need for a review of the Indian Constitution? Justify your view.
   
   
9. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
   15 × 2 = 30
   1. Examine the role of caste in Indian Politics.
   2. Discuss the problems in achieving National Intergration in India.
   3. Examine the impact of Regional Poiltical Parties in Indian Poiltics.
   
   
10. Answer any one of the following questions (in about 250 words):
    30
    1. "Globalization has brought about a distinct class divided in India instead of ushering in a classless society." Critically examine this argument.
    2. "The conditions of the urban poor are more deplorable than that of their rural counterparts." Give your views.
    
    
11. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each):
    15 × 2 = 30
    1. Examine whether rural women in India have been empowered by their active participation in Panchayat Raj System.
    2. "Decline in the sex ration in India is an alarming sign for India's future social development." Discuss.
    3. What should bethe role of the media to project 'mass reality' in place of 'illusion of reality'?
    
    
12. Write about the following (in about 20 words each):
    2 × 5 = 10
    1. MTP Act
    2. Supreme Court on Ragging
    3. New Seven Wonders of the World
    4. M.M.Punchi Commission
    5. Lakshmi Mittal

GENERAL STUDIES
(MAIN)

2008 PAPER-II

Time Allowed:Three Hours

Maximum Marks:300

Instructions

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Write notes on any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words):
   2 × 30 = 60
   1. India and the New World Order
   2. Indo-Bhutan Relations
   3. India and China: Strategy to Boost Ties
   
   
2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words):
   5 × 2 = 10
   1. India's Ocean Development Policy
   2. Major hurdles in Indo-Pak ties
   3. India-Nigeria: Abuja Declaration
   4. India-Bangladesh Border Road cum fencing
   5. India's L.C.A. (Tejas)
   
   
3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words):
   5 × 2 = 10
   1. Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas
   2. Council for Promotion of Overseas Employment (CPOE)
   3. Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme
   4. Indian Diaspora in Singapore
   5. Indian Diaspora and Bollywood
   
   
4. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words):
   30
   1. Discuss India's stand on agricultural issues in WTO's Ministerial Conferences since Doha Round.
   2. Assess the performance of India in attracting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
   
   
5. Discuss any two of the following topics(answer each question in about 150 words):
   2 × 15 = 30
   1. Assistance to the States for Development of Export Infrastructure and other activities (ASIDE).
   2. Convertibility of Indian Rupee.
   3. India on Global competitiveness Index - 2007.
   
   
6. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words):
   5 × 2 = 10
   1. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
   2. NAMA
   3. Non-tariff trade barriers
   4. Current Account Balance
   5. Free Trade Area
   
   
7. Write on any one of the following (answer in about 150 words):
   15
   1. South-South Cooperation
   2. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
   
   
8. Briefly write about the following (answer to each qeustion should be in about 20 words):
   5 × 2 = 10
   1. Look East Policy and North-East India
   2. India at the Beijing Olympics
   3. India's role in Afganisthan Today
   4. IPCC Report on Global Warming
   5. Indo-EU Economic Ties
   
   
9. Briefly write about the following (answer to each qeustion should be in about 20 words):
   5 × 2 = 10
   1. G.C.C.
   2. G - 77
   3. I.C.R.C.
   4. MERCOSUR
   5. INTERPOL
   
   
10. Answer any one of the following (in about 250 words):
    30
    1. In what way 'Medical Biotechnology' and 'Bioengineering' are useful for technological development of India?
    2. What do you know about Indian Natinal Satellite Systems? Descrihbe its important features.
    
    
11. Explain any three of the following (in about 150 words each):
    3 × 15 = 45
    1. Internet Protocol Television (IPTV)
    2. Spintronics
    3. Components of Robots
    
    
12. Write breif notes on all the five (in about 20 words each) below:
    5 × 2 = 10
    1. Copyright and Trade-mark
    2. TIFAC
    3. Aspartame
    4. Gene doping
    5. Sappan
    
    
13. 1. The Principal exports of India for the financial year 2001-2002 are given in the following table:

       Sl.No	Category	Export
       1	Agriculture and allied products	29312
       2	Ores and minerals	4736
       3	Manufactured goods	161161
       4	Fuels and lubricants	10411
       5	Others	3398
       	Total	209018

       Represent the above date by a suitable diagram and comment on the export performance of the country.
       6
    2. Prior to constructing a dam on a river the engineers performed a series of tests to measure the water flow at the proposed location of the dam. The result of the testing were used to construct the following frequency distribution.

       Water flow (Thousands of gallons per minute)	Frequency
       1001-1050	7
       1051-1100	21
       1101-1150	32
       1151-1200	49
       1201-1250	58
       1251-1300	41
       1301-1350	27
       1351-1400	11

       Construct an appropriate diagram to estimate what proportion of the flow occurs at less than 1300 thousands of gallons per minute. Give the estimate.
       6
    
    
14. 1. A compnay files its sales vouchers according to their sales value so that they falls in four strata. Two hundred vouchers are received on a business day. The information is listed in the following table:

       Stratum	Number of vouchers	Mean value (Rs.)
       Above Rs.1000 Rs. 800 but under	50	1800
       Rs. 1000	60	890
       Rs. 400 but under Rs. 800	50	560
       Less than Rs. 400	40	180

       Calculate the mean value and the total value of the vouchers received by the company on the day in question. Use the histogram to estimate the modal value of the vouchers.
       6
    2. A trip to a destination is made in the following way:
       900 kms by train at an average speed of 60 kms/hr
       3000 kms by plane at an average speed of 500 kms/hr
       400 kms by boat at an average speed of 25 kms/hr
       15 kms by taxi at an average speed of 45 kms/hr
       What is the average speed for the entire journey?
       6
    
    
15. 1. A hotel owner has nine refreshment stalls located at various points in a large compound. He wants to make one of the stalls as a supply place such that amount of travel between the stalls and the source of supply is minimized. He has to visit all stalls almost equal number of times with a view to supplying the refreshment stuff everyday. The distances of stalls from the first stall are 250, 500, 650, 800, 850, 910, 940 and 1000 yards respectively. Which stall should he choose to use as the supply place? Give reason in favour of your answer.
       2
    2. In a statistical investigation of 1003 families of a city, it was found that 63 families had neither a radio nor a TV, 794 families had a radio and 187 had a TV. How many families of the city selected in the sample had both?
       2
    3. The mean monthly income of a person is Rs. 18190/- and his mean monthly expenditure comes out to be Rs. 17930/-. What is his average monthly saving?
       2

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UPSC Mains Paper 2009 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Question Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION-A

1. Comment on any THREE of the following statements in not more than 200 words each:
   
   20 × 3 = 60
   
   
   1. ''The field of Public Administration is a field of business.'' (Woodrow Wilson)
   2. ''New Public Administration is .... a revolution or radicalism in words, and (at best) status-quo in skills or technologies.''
   3. ''Taylor's contribution was not a set of general principles for organising work efficiency, but a set of operating procedures that could be employed in each concrete situation to secure their application.''
   4. ''The Barnard-Simon Theory of Organisation is essentially a theory of motivation.''
   
   
2. Answer the following in about 300 words each:
   
   30 × 2 = 60
   
   
   1. Consider the statements below:
   
   
   1. ''Technically, the bureaucracy represents the purest type of legal-rational authority.''
   2. ''Bureaucracy does not represent the only type of legal authority.''
   
   Identify the theoretical context and analyse the above statements.
   
3. Which of the model(s) in development administration is/are characterised by 'Selectivism', 'Attainment' and 'Poly-functionalism'? Describe the corresponding theoretical roots and attributes.
   
4. It is said that ''the perspective public administration, developed over a century, with a tradition of management of public institutions and services has received a jolt from the novelty of New Public Management''.
   Bring out the core values, approaches and assumptions of traditional public administration and show how the New Public Management has attempted to change or retain them, and to what extent.
   
   60
   
5. From Woodrow Wilson to Herbert Simon most writers on administration have taken the achievement of efficiency as the central objective. Justify the statement with references to the work of major writers.
   
   60
   
   
   SECTION-B
   
   
6. Answer any THREE of the following questions in not more than 200 words each:
   
   20 × 3 = 60
   
   
   1. ''There is no doubt that departmentalisation is fraught with complexities. These are in part technical, in part political.'' Discuss.
   2. ''Techniques like PERT and CPM help in effective office management.'' Elaborate.
   3. ''... non-western states often, if not always, have unbalanced politics, but these may not necessarily be bureaucratic politics.'' Discuss. ''Yehezkel Dror's normative models of policy making tend to be academic in perspective with poor operational utility.'' Comment.
   
   
7. Consider the statements below:
   
8. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) enable women to realise their full potential in some spheres of life.
9. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are providing avenues of political mobilisation.
   Examine the implications of these two statements and assess the potential of SHGs for development.
   
   60
   
   
10. It is said that 'position classification', as originally conceived is sound in terms of its operational characteristics, but complicated and unresponsive in practice. Why is it still considered better than other models of civil service classification?
    
    60
    
    
11. ''... even if policies are well organized, efficiently operated, widely utilized, adequately financed and supported, we may still ask, so what? Do they work? .... What about their costs, outputs and impact?'' Discuss.
    
    60
    
    
    PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
    
    Paper II
    
    
    Time Allowed : Three Hours
    
    
    Maximum Marks : 300
    
    
    INSTRUCTIONS
    Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
    Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
    Candidates should attempt Questions 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.
    The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
    

    SECTION-A

    
    

    1. Attempt any three of the following in not more than 200 words each:
       3 × 20 = 60
       
       
       1. ''Bureaucracy developed by the British stifled the village self-rule.'' Comment.
       2. Comment on the view that despite different contexts, administrative maxims of Kautilya's Arthashastra bear considerable similarity with features of Weber's ideal bureaucratic model.
       3. ''The weakest aspect of Indian administration is the grievance redressal machinery''. Discuss.
       4. ''There is no basic contradiction between Civil Service neutrality and Civil Service activism.'' Comment.
       
       
    2. 1. ''Law and order problems of the twenty-first century cannot be tackled through legislations and structures of the nineteenth century.'' Give suggestions for transforming the law and order machinery at the State level.
          30
          
          
       2. ''The recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission on reforming the Civil Service are radical yet implementable.'' Do you agree?
       
       
       30
       
       
    3. 1. Briefly discuss the main recommendations of any two of the following:
          
          30
          
          
          1. Paul Appleby (1953 and 1956)
          2. Santhanam Committee
          3. Hota Committee
          4. Sixth Pay Commission
          
          
       2. Examine the role of the Finance Ministry of the Union Government in designing and implementing monetary and fiscal policies.
       
       
       30
       
       
    4. 1. Discuss the relationship between governance and development in any one Indian State, giving illustrations.
          30
          
          
       2. Do State Services suffer in comparison with the All-India and Central Services? Suggest measures for enhancing the role, competence and impact of State Services.
       
       
       30
       
       
       SECTION-B
       
       
    5. Comment on any three of the following statements in not more than 200 words each:
       
       3 × 20 = 60
       
       
       1. ''India has failed to devise a long-term strategy for drought management.''
       2. ''A fixed tenure in Civil Service postings can increase productivity, accountability, and probity in Government.''
       3. ''Sound municipal governance requires a cadre of specialized municipal services executives equal in status to State Services.''
       4. ''Administrative talent of a Minister determines his success.''
       
       
    6. 1. ''The respective roles of the Cabinet Secretary of the Government of India and of the Chief Secretary of a State are similar in certain respects, and dissimilar in others.'' Explain.
          30
          
          
       2. Do you agree with the view that Citizens' Charters in India have not succeeded in their objective of making the administrative system citizen-centric? Analyze and give your suggestions in this regard.
       
       
       30
       
       
    7. 1. ''The National Human Rights Commission has done as commendable job in developing a sense of responsibility among organizations towards the protection of human rights.'' Comment on this assessment.
          30
          
          
       2. In your view, which have been the five most important administrative reforms implemented after Independence? What has been their impact?
       
       
    8. 1. ''Values of Indian administration must be rooted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.'' Discuss.
          30
          
          
       2. ''Many of the programmes of development being implemented at the State and the Local level have been initiated or financed by the Union Government. This has transformed the nature of Indian federalism''. Critically examine this assessment.
       
       
       30

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