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Wednesday, February 25, 2009

SBI Clerk Exam, 2008 : General English (Fully Solved)

SBI Clerk Exam, 2008 : General English (Fully Solved)

SBI Clerk Exam, 2008 : General English (Fully Solved)


(Held on 6-7-2008)

General English

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”

His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”

“You’ll get it when you go far away.”

“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”

41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her

Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot

49. Packed
(A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)

52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)

53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)

54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E)

55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.

56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required

58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.

66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)

67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)

68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)

69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E)

70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.

71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around

72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone

73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played

74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which

75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable

76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement

77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees

78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship

79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while

80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy

Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)

Sunday, February 22, 2009

Power grid ET 2009 Exam Paper Review

Hi frds,
I have attended the exam today.paper was easy i have concentrated much on Quant, attempted all 50 questions..I have attempted 116 questions out of 120 in Electrical stream.Totally my score will be around 85 out of 170...

Pls post ur experience here so that it will be helpful for others...

Saturday, February 21, 2009

CTCI India Requires Designation Process Engineer

CTCI IndiaDesignation Process Engineer
Job DescriptionCTCI India is looking for:- Chemical engineers having strong exposure in Process Simulation, PFD/UFD with Heat & Material balance, P&ID/UFD, Equipment Data Sheet Preparation (Column, Vessel, H/E, Compressor, Pump, Package etc) Hydraulics, Line Sizing, Int. & Piping process data, Relief Load & PSV calculation, Process Control System Design, HSE Design, Dynamic SimulationHands on experience on HYSIS, ASPEN, PRO II is preferredPeople with prior experience would be preferred Desired Profile Education : BS degree and higher of Chemical Engineering 0 to 2 years and above in Engineering Design of Oil and Gas Industries or Utility SystemsFreshers can also apply Capabilities : Sizing and design work of equipment, heat exchanger thermal rating, instrument, hydraulic, line list, and so onPreparing preliminary P & ID, UFD.Using AutoCAD in preparing flow diagram.Familiar with PRO/II simulator is preferable. Experience: 0 - 3 Years Industry Type: Oil and Gas/ Power/Infrastructure/Energy Functional Area: Engineering Design, R&D Education: B.Tech/B.E. - Chemical Location: Delhi/NCR, Noida Contact DetailsExecutive Name: Mr. Rajiv Ranjan Singh Website: http://www.ctci.com.tw Reference : Process Engineer (0-3)
Keywords HYSIS, ASPEN , PRO II, process simulation , PFD , UFD , Line sizing , HSE design, Dynamic Simulation, Hydraulics, Equipment design, Chemical Engineering, AUTOCAD
If you meet the above mentioned criteria, apply onlineHow To Apply- If you have not registered in Naukri.comClick here to Post Your Resume & Apply online

Singareni Collieries Company Limited Backlog Vacancies of SC/ST under special Recruitment Drive and Regular Vacancies

Singareni Collieries Company LimitedKothagudem Collieries 507 101, Khammam Dist. (AP)
Recruitment of Executive cadre / Non Executive cadre / NCWA cadre
Backlog Vacancies of SC/ST under special Recruitment Drive and Regular Vacancies
Backlog Vacancies
SI No
Name of the post, grade, no.of vacancies, roster description, reserva-tion to local candidates and maximum age
Minimum qualification & experience
I. Executive cadre
1
Accounts officerE-2 grade (male/female) Rs.10750-16750Total: 4 vacancies (unreserved (local+nonlocal)-2 sc; 1 stw Local candidates - 1 scw)Max. Age: 40 years as on 01.01.2009.
CA/ICWA
2
Under managerE-2 grade (men only)Rs.10,750 - 16,750Total: 2 vacancies, st-242 years as on 01.01.2009
B.E. (mining) / B.Tech (mining) or its equivalent and holder of ii class mine manager's certificate of competency (coal).
3
General duty medical officer, (female only)E-2 grade Rs.10750-16750Total: 1 stw vacancyMax. Age: 50 years as on 01.01.2009
M.B.B.S
Ii. Non-executive cadre:
4
Overman/mining sirdar/ shotfirer (men only)Ncwa tech.&sup.gr-c Rs.6724-202-10360Total: 15 sc & 10 st vacancies Max. Age: 36 years as on 01.01.2009.
Diploma in mining engineering from any state board of technical educa tion (approved by aicte), with valid overman, gas testing and first aid certificates issued by director general of mines safety authorities.

(i) on appointment the candidate will be deployed to work as over man/mining sirdar/shot firer as per requirement, for a period of two years. (ii) on successful completion of two years service in tech.& sup. gr.’c’ as above and on satisfactory assessment report, the candidate will be considered for promotion as over man in tech.& sup.gr.'b'.
Regular vacancies
NCWA cadre:
5
Mine surveyor (men only)Ncwa tech.&sup.gr-aRs.7824-235-12054Total: 20 vacancies[unreserved (local & non-local: 4 (oc-2, bcb-1, sc-1)Local: 16 (oc-9, bca-1, bcb-2, bcc-1, sc-2, st-1)Max. Age:34 years as on 01.01.2009
SSC, mine surveyor certificate of competency under coal mines regulations.
6
Overman/mining sirdar/ shotfirer (men only)Ncwa tech.&sup.gr-c Rs.6724-202-10360Total: 25 vacancies (oc-11, bca-3, bcb-6, bcc-1, bcd-3, bce-1)Max. Age: 34 years as on 01.01.2009.
Diploma in mining engineering from any state board of technical education(approved by aicte), with valid overman, gas testing and first aid certificates issued by statutory authorities.
(ii) On appointment the candidate will be deployed to work as Overman/Mining Sirdar/Shotfirer as per requirement, for a period of two years. (ii) On successful completion of two years service in Tech.& Sup.Gr.’C’ as above and on satisfactory assessment report, the candidate will be considered for promotion as Overman in Tech.& Sup.Gr.'B'.
Note : Knowledge of Telugu is desirable.Application Fee:The candidates should keep ready and submit the details of Fee payment while filling up the ONLINE APPLICATION. Application must be accompanied by a fee of Rs.20/- (non-refundable) in the form of Indian Postal Order OR Demand Draft.Mode of paymentIndian Postal Order favouring M/s Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. Payable at Kothagudem (OR)Demand draft favouring M/s Singareni Collieries Company Ltd. on State Bank of Hyderabad-(Bank Code: 2160), Kothagudem (OR) Andhra Bank-(Bank Code:315), Kothagudem. How To ApplyOnline Application can be submitted upto 5.00 PM on O7.03.2009 (website closure). Candidates have to take a print of the ONLINE Application Form after successful submission of data. The printed form of the application signed by the candidate enclosing therewith copies of certificates in proof of age, qualification, experience, marks memos, caste, Local candidature etc., and self-addressed stamped (Rs.5/-) envelope should be sent to the Director (PA&W), The Singareni Collieries Co. Ltd., Recruitment Cell, Kothagudem 507 101, Khammam Dist. (AP) only by POST / COURIER to reach on or before 19.03.2009, super scribing the application registration number and name of the post on the envelope.
Details HereClick Here To Apply Online

Rail Vikas Nigam Limited Jobs Openings

Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
( A Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Railways)

Recruitment of Technical Supervisors / Technical Executives
RAIL VIKAS NIGAM LIMITED (RVNL), a Public Sector Undertaking of the Ministry of Railways, is a premier construction company engaged in the construction of projects of national importance in Railways. RVNL invites applications for the following posts to be filled up on Contract basis at fixed remuneration (all inclusive) for its various projects :

Post
Discipline
Qualification
Remarks
1. Technical Supervisors
Civil
Degree in Civil Engineering
Preference will be given to experienced candidates
Electrical
Degree in Electrical engineering
S&T
Degree in Electronics & Communication; OR Degree in Electrical Engineering.
2. Technical Executives
Civil
Diploma Civil Engineering
Electrical
Diploma Electrical Engineering
The monthly remuneration ( all inclusive) shall be Rs. 19,000/ for Technical Supervisors and Rs. 14,000/ for Technical Executives.
Selection : Interview will be held between 10.00 AM to 4.00 PM. Candidates who are willing and consider themselves as eligible to appear in the Walk-in Interview should straightway report for the interview at the prescribed venues along with the certificates/other credentials( in original as well as certified copies) along with application in the prescribed format (given as Annexure I) by 9.30 AM
Project Locations
Date of Interview
Deptt Discipline
Post Vacancies
Contact Office & Telecom No
KhurjaAligarhPalwalMathura
18-2-2009
Elect
Tech. SupervisorsTech. Executives
General Manager (P&A), RVNL,1st Floor, August Kranti Bhavan, Bhikhaji Cama Place, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066
Bina Bhopal
23-2-2009
Civil
Tech. SupervisorsTech. Executives
Addl. General Manager (P), RVNL,7, Kesarkunj, Shankar Nagar, Bhopal-462011
BilaspurAnuppurSalka Road
24-2-2009
Elect
Tech. SupervisorsTech. Executives
Chief Project Manager, RVNL,36, Parijat, Rajkishore Nagar, Bilaspur, CGPin: 495006
BilaspurAnuppurRaipurTitlagarh
25-2-2009
S&T
Tech. Supervisors-3
-do-

JodhpurJaipur
4-3-2009
Civil
Tech Executives
Chief Project Manager, RVNL,D-21, Nehru Park,Sardarpura,Jodhpur.
Pune
16-3-2009
Elect

Tech. SupervisorsTech. Executives
Chief Project Manager, RVNL,Behind IRICEN Railway Colony, South Main Road, Koregaon Park, Pune-411 001
Pune
17-3-2009
S&T
Tech. Supervisors
-do-
DaundGulbarga
18-3-2009
Civil
Tech. SupervisorsTech. Executives
Chief Project Manager, RVNL, Shop-3, Casa Blanca, Plot No. 45, Sector-11, CBD, Belapur, Navi Mumbai-400 0674
HospetTinaighat
23-3-2009
Civil
Tech. SupervisorsTech. Executives
Chief Project Manager, RVNL,384-a, Railway Officers, Sheshadri Road, Gandhi Nagar, Bangalore-560 009
Click Here for More Details & Application Form. (Ms Word Format)
Click Here for More Details & Application Form. (PDF Format)

Friday, February 20, 2009

Delhi High Court IT Vacancy

HIGH COURT OF DELHI : NEW DELHI

Applications on the prescribed forms are invited from Indian Nationals for appointment to the following posts of

* System Analyst : 01 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.10000-15200, Age : 40 years
* Programmer : 02 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.8000-13500/-, Age : 35 years
* Assistant Programmer : 04 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.5500-9000, Age : 30 years

How to Apply : Application on prescribed format duly filled in with two recent passport size photographs duly attested by a Gazetted Officer alongwith attested copies of relevant testimonials and application fee should be sent by the Registered A.D. posts with the words “Applications for the post of ________” superimposed on the envelope addressed to the Joint Registrar (Estt), Delhi High Court, Shershah Road, New Delhi, so as to reach on or before 13/03/2009 at 5.00 P.M.
For more information and application form, kindly view http://delhihighcourt.nic.in/postcomp.doc

Delhi Police Jobs Opening

Recruitment of Hindi Translator (Civilian), Head Constable (Store clerk), Constable (Bugler), Constable (Brass Band), Constable (Pipe Band), Constable (Mounted) and Constrable (Driver) in in Delhi Police - 2009



Applications from Indian nationals are invited to fill up following vacancies in the following category :

1. Hindi Translator (Civilian) : 01 post, Pay Scale : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2800
2. Head Constable (Store Clerk) : 07 posts (UR-6, OBC-1), Pay Scale : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2400
3. Constable (Bugler) : 13 posts (UR-8, SC-2,OBC-3), Pay Scale : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2000
4. Constable (Brass Band) : 13 posts (ST-3, OBC-10), Pay Scale : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2000
5. Constable (Pipe Band) : 01 post (OBC-1), Pay Scale : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2000
6. Constable (Mounted) : 13 posts (SC-2,OBC-11), Pay Scale : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2000
7. Constable (Driver) : 676 posts (UR-378, SC-149, ST-45, OBC-104), Pay Scale : PB-1 Rs.5200-20200 + Grade pay Rs.2000

Application Form : Detailed information and Application form can be obtained in person from 02/03/2009 to 19/03/2009 between 10 am to 4 pm at Prov. & Logistics, Old Police Lines (Near Tis Hazari Courts), Rajpur Road, Delhi against a fee of Rs.100 in the form of DD/ Banker's cheque in favour of "DCP/ Prov. & Logistics, Delhi" (free for SC/ST and Ex.SM candidate). How to Submit : Duly filled application form will be deposited at Prov. & Logistics, Old Police Lines (Near Tis Hazari Courts), Rajpur Road, Delhi from upto 20/03/2009

Thursday, February 19, 2009

Corporation Bank invites applications for 425 Clerical Cadre posts.

Corporation Bank invites applications for 425 Clerical Cadre posts.
Recruitment of Clerks-2009
Please click below for:1.
Detailed Advertisements :
http://app3.ibps.in/corporationclerk
2. Format of Pay-in-slip:

LIC HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED REQUIRES ASSISTANT

LIC HOUSING FINANCE LIMITED
RECRUITMENT FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT

Applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of Assistant in its various offices all over the Country.

I) Proposed Vacancies : 114

II) Eligibility conditions :

1) Age : ( as on 01st February, 2009)

Minimum : 21 years (completed)
Maximum : 30 years

Candidates born between 31/01/1988 and 01/02/1979( both dates inclusive ) are eligible

2) Educational Qualifications:

Graduate in any discipline with minimum 50 % marks. Candidates should have knowledge of Computer Operations


III) Remuneration :

Starting Basic Pay will be Rs. 4945/- per month and Gross salary (under revision) will be approximately Rs. 8200/- p.m. inclusive of all allowances . Benefits like PF, Gratuity, Group Mediclaim, Medical Benefit , LTC , etc. and other fringe benefits will be payable as per rules of the Company.


IV) Application Fees ( Non-refundable):

A crossed bank Demand Draft for Rs. 300/- valid for six months drawn in favour of
‘ LIC HOUSING FINANCE LTD’ payable at Mumbai should be enclosed with the application. Applications with defective demand drafts shall be liable for rejection.


V) Service Conditions :

These shall be applicable as in the Company from time to time. The selected candidates appointed to the post shall be liable to be posted or subsequently transferred anywhere in India.

VI) Selection Procedure :

A competitive examination will be held at 24 centres in India. Applicants will have to appear for the written examination on 22/03/2009 at the centre chosen by them / allotted to them at their own expenses .The date of written examination and centre will be intimated individually. The written test will be of Objective type comprising of a) Reasoning ability b) Numerical Ability c) General Knowledge & Current affairs d) English Language with special emphasis on grammar & vocabulary . Candidates who qualify in the written test will be called for the interview . Further the appointment of candidates will be subject to his/ her being medically fit.

The Company reserves the right to fix the minimum eligibility standards in order to restrict the number of candidates to be called for the interview , commensurate with the number of vacancies. The decision of the Company shall be final and binding on the candidates and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard. Successful candidates called for interview will have to appear for the interview at their own expenses.

Appearing in the written examination will not automatically confer any right of being selected for the said post.

VII) Examination Centre :

Candidates should indicate the name and Code Number of the Test Centre in the appropriate column of the Application form. No change of Centre will be permissible at a later date. The Company, for administrative reasons, however, reserves the right to direct the candidate to appear for written test at any centre other than the one chosen by the candidate.

Centres
Code
Centres
Code
Ahmedabad
11
Kozhikode
23
Bangalore
12
Lucknow
24
Bhopal
13
Madurai
25
Bhubaneswar
14
Mumbai
26
Chandigarh
15
Nagpur
27
Chennai
16
Nasik
28
Dharwad
17
New Delhi
29
Ernakulam
18
Patna
30
Guwahati
19
Pune
31
Hyderabad
20
Trivandrum
32
Jaipur
21
Vijaywada
33
Kolkata
22
Vishakhapatnam
34


VIII) GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1) Candidates satisfying the eligibility conditions may send their applications neatly typed or handwritten in ENGLISH CAPITAL LETTERS strictly in the format furnished (Corrections/ alterations/ overwriting should be avoided) to the following Post Box Number:

POST BOX NO. 18202
DAHISAR (EAST)
MUMBAI 400 068

2) Superscribe “ LICHFL- APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT” at the left hand top corner of the envelope.
3) Enclose attested copies of the following.
(i) SSC certificate showing date of birth
(ii) Degree certificate along with Marksheets
(iii) Certificate in respect of Computer qualification
(iv) Certificate in respect of any additional qualification
(v) Copy of marriage certificate / Gazette notification in case of change of name.
(vi) Certificate of working experience in finance related jobs
(vii) NOC in respect of candidates working in Govt. / Semi Govt./Public Sector
Undertakings

4) Withdrawal of candidature on account of non furnishing of any information will not confer any right to carry forward or retain the candidature for future recruitment.
5) Application once submitted will not be allowed to be withdrawn and the fees once paid will not be refunded on any account nor would this fee reserved for future exam/selection. The fees paid by ineligible candidates will also be forfeited
6) Application form not in the prescribed format or incomplete in any respect / unsigned /mutilated or received without the Demand draft of application fee or No Objection Certificate in respect of candidates working in Govt./ Semi Govt./Public Sector Undertakings or not accompanied by relevant certificates are liable to be rejected.
7) If applications of more than one candidate are sent in one envelope, all the applications will be rejected.
8) Before dispatch, check if the Bank draft is in order particularly (i) date of issue (ii) Signature of Bank Authorities (iii) Amount (Rs. 300/-) in words & figures (iv) favouring LIC Housing Finance Ltd. payable at Mumbai (v) valid for six months (vi) Address of the Bank
9) Call letters for appearing in the written test as also call letters for appearing before the interview committee, if found successful in the written test will also be sent on the candidate’s email id.
10) The Company reserves the right to restrict the number of candidates to be called for the interview depending upon the number of vacancies . In this regard, decision of the Company will be final and binding.
11) The Company takes no responsibility for delay in receiving the application or loss in transit as also delay in receiving call letters for written test/ interview by the candidates due to postal delay . No communication will be entertained in this regard.
12) Last date for receiving applications will be 02/03/2009
13) Applications received after the last date will not be entertained.
14)Before applying, the candidates must ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility requirements and the particulars furnished by them are correct in all respects. If found ineligible on any count or furnished information is found to be incorrect or any material fact(s) has been suppressed , his/her candidature will be cancelled at any stage of recruitment . If any of these shortcomings is /are detected even after the appointment, his /her services are liable to be terminated

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BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - V
1. Reactive current through the inductive load produces-
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Super magnetic field
d) None

2. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) each of them increases
b) each of them decreases
c) copper increases and germanium decreases
d) copper decreases and germanium increases

3. A capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5 cm2 each separated by an air gap of 2mm. Displacement sensitivity in pF /cm due to gap change would be -
a) 11.1
b) 44.2
c) 52.3
d) 66.3

4. The critical angle in degrees, for an electromagnetic wave passing from Quartz (m = m0, Î=4Îo) into air is-
a) 15
b)30
c)45
d)90

5. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = -1; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4

6. A capacitor used for power factor correction in single- phase circuit decreases –
a) the power factor
b) the line current
c) Both the line current and the power factor
d) the line current and increases power factor

7. The unit of inductance is –
a) ohm
b) inductive reactance
c) inducta
d) Henry

8. Which type of by-pass capacitor works best at high frequencies –
a) electrolytic
b) mica
c) ceramic
d) plexiglass

9. The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is –
a) 600 W
b) 500 W
c) 75 W
d) none

10. Telemetering is a method of –
a) counting pulses, sent over long distances
b) transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None

11. In an unbiased P-N junction thickness of depletion layer is of the order of –
a) 0.005 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10-10 m

12. One of the semiconductor device, which behaves like two SCRs is–
a) UJT
b) triac
c) JFET
d) MOSFET

13. The following, which is not an advantage of semiconductor strain gauges as compared to conventional strain gauges, is –
a) excellent hysterists characteristics
b) least sensitive to temperature changes
c) high fatigue life
d) smaller size

14. The fundamental ripple frequency of a half wave 3F rectifier with a 3F supply of frequency 50 Hz is –
a)150 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 250 Hz.

15. For an FR biased PNP transistor –
a) base is negative with respect to emitter
b) collector is positive with respect to emitter
c) collector is a little more positive than base
d) base is a little less positive with respect to emitter than collector

16. With normal operation of a JFET one can get IDss –
a) the maximum drain current
b) the minimum drain current
c) normal drain current
d) none

17. An SCR is a semiconductor device made up of –
a) Four N type layers
b) Two P types and three N type layers
c) Two P type and two N type layers
d) Three P type and one N type layers

18. For a UJT, if R1 = resistance from emitter to base 1, R2 = resistance from emitter to the base 2 and RBB = R1 + R2 then the intrinsic stand off ratio (h) is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
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19. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) becomes zero
b) abruptly decreases
c) abruptly increases
d) remains constant

20. When the energy gap of a semiconductor is 1.1eV then it would be –
a) opaque to the visible light
b) transparent to the visible light
c) transparent to the infrared radiation
d) opaque to the infrared radiation

21. The equivalent capacitance across ab will be –
d) 0

22. In the following fig. the power dissipated is maximum when the value of Rx is –
a) 33.4 K
b) 17.6 K
c) 10 K
d) 5 K

23. The transfer function of a low pass RC network is –

24. The total capacitance across points 'a' and 'b' in the given figure is –
a) 1.66 mF
b) 2.66 mF
c) 3.5 mF
d) 4.5 mF

25. .The load resistance needed to extract maximum power from the following circuit is –
a) 2W
b) 9W
c) 6W
d) 18W

26. Which one of the following conditions for z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) z11 = z22
b) z12z21 = z11z22
c) z11z12 = z22z21
d) z12 = z21

27. In the network shown, the switch is opened at t = 0. Prior to that, the network was in the steady state, Vs(t) at t = 0 is –
a) 0
b) 5V
c) 10V
d) 15V

28. Which of the following statements are correct –
1. Tellegen's theorem is applicable to any lumped network
2. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to linear bilateral networks.
3. Thevenin's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.
4. Norton's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4

29. Which one of the following transfer functions represents the critically damped system ?

30. When the respective coil impedance of the circuit shown in the fig. is are Z1 = (5 + j8)W and Z2=(3+j8) then the input impedance of the circuit will be –
a) (8 + 16j)W
b) (2 + j0)W
c) (15 + 64j)W
d) (8 + 0j)W

31. One of the following statement which is not correct -
a) In case of an antenna, the radiation resistance and loss resistance are not two different quantities.
b) The loss resistance includes loss by eddy currents, improper earth connections, insulation leakages etc) but not I2R losses
c) Radiation resistance varies directly as square root of the frequency
d) None of the above

32. Ultraviolet radiation emitted when electron jumps from an outer stationary orbit to -.
a) first stationary orbit
b) second stationary orbit
c) third stationary orbit
d) fourth stationary orbit

33. When the signal is propogated in a waveguide which has a full wave of electric intensity change between the two farther walls and no component of the electric field in the direction of propogation then the mode is –
a) TE11
b) TE10
c) TM22
d) TE20

34. Consider the following statements pertaining to parabolic antenna -
1.It is commonly used above 1GHz
2. It get’s circularly polarized
3. It’s radiation pattern is highly directional
4. It’s radiation pattern is cardiod
of these statements-
a) 1,2 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct
BSNL Recruit ment Exam latest paper last years download here.. answer key coming soon!
35. When a vertical dipole antenna is used in conjunction with a loop antenna for direction finding, then the field pattern obtained will be-

36. When one end of a loss less transmission line of length 3/8 l and characteristic impedance R0 is short circuited and the other end is terminated in Ro then the impedance at l/8 away from the end terminated in R0 is-
a) Zero
b) R0
c) R0/2
d) Infinite

37. For transmission of wave from a dielectric permittivity Î1 into dielectric medium of lower permittivity Î2 (Î1 > Î2) the critical angle of incidence Qc ( relative to the interface ) is given by -



38. A transmission line has primary constants R, L, G and C and secondary constants Z0 and g (= a + jb) if the line is loss less then .

39. The intrinsic impedance of a free space is-

40. One of the following which is a low gain but omni directional antenna is-
a) discone
b) log-periodic
c) loop
d) helical

41. Electronic voltmeters have –
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) zero input impedance
d) none

42. Which of the following statement about impulse voltage is true ?
a) An impulse voltage is an unidirectional voltage.
b) In chopped impulse voltage, flashover does not occur.
c) Time taken to rise is exactly equal to the time taken to fall.
d) RMS value of impulse voltage is always less than 50% of average value.

43. The precision of an instrument indicates its ability to reproduce a certain reading with a given –
a) drift
b) resolution
c) shift.
d) consistency

44. In heterodyne digital conductor, the input signal is heterodyned to a –
a) higher frequency
b) lower frequency
c) both a and b)
d) none

45. In a digital measuring device, if the input electrical signal is in the frequency range dc to fmax Hz, then it must be sampled at a rate of –
a) fmax times/sec
b) fmax times/ses
c) every 2fmax/sec
d) 2 fmax times/sec .

46. Moving Iron intruments measures the rms value of –
a) a direct quantity
b) an alternating quantity
c) a virtual quantity.
d) none.

47. One of the following intruments which is used almost exclusively to measure radio frequency current is-
a) Moving coil meter
b) Rectifier-type moving coil meter
c) Iron-vane meter
d) Thermocouple meter.


48. A good ohmic contact on a p- type semiconductor chip is formed by introducing –
a) gold as an impurity below the contact
b) a high concentration of donors below the contract
c) a high concentration of acceptors below the contact
d) a thin insulator layer between the metal and semiconductor.

49. The use of thermocouple meters for ac measurement leads to a meterscale which is –
a) linear
b) square law
c) logarithmic
d) exponential

50. If low pressure of the order of 10-6mm of Hg is to be measure then the instrument of choice would be-
a) compound pressure gauge
b) thermocouple vacuum gauge
c) pirani gauge
d) ionization type vacuum gauge

51.
In the given circuit if the power dissipated in the 6W resister is zero then V is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
52. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given figure. The resistor will be non inductive if –
a)
b)
c)
d)

53. SCR turns OFF from conducting state to blocking state on –
a) reducing gate current
b) reversing gate voltage
c) reducing anode current below holding current value
d) applying ac to the gate

54. Static V-I characteristics of an SCR with different gate drives applied to the gate are indicated by-
a) I92 > I 91 > I 90
b) V92 > V91 > V90
c) P92 > P91 > P90
d) either a or b

55. Each diode of a 3 phase, 6-pulse bridge diode rectifier conducts for-
a) 60o
b) 1200
c) 1800
d) 900

56. A load, consisting of R = 10W and wL = 10W is being fed from 230 V, 50 Hz source through a 1 phase voltage controller. For a firing angle delay of 300 , the rms value of load current would be-
a) 23 A

57. The total number of SCRs conducting simultaneously in a 3 phase full converter with overlap considered has the sequence of-
a) 3,3, 22
b) 3, 3, 3, 2
c) 3, 2, 3, 2
d) 2, 2, 2, 3

58. A single phase voltage controller, using two SCRs in antiparallel is found to be operating as a controlled rectifier. This is because
a) load is R and pulse gating is used
b) load is R and high frquendy carrier gating is used
c) load is RL and pulse gating is used
d) load is RL and continuous gating is used

59. The inverse Fourier Transform of


60. In a GTO anode current begins to fall when gate current-
a) is negative peak at time t = 0
b) is negative peak at t = shortage period ts
c) just begins to become negative at t = 0
d) is negative peak at t = (ts + fall time)

61. Power amplifiers and Audio use
a) Ferrite core
b) Air core
c) Solid iron core
d) Laminated iron core

62. The amplifiers which are inserted at intervals amplify the signal and compensate for transmission less on the cable are called-
a) Line amplifiers
b) Equalizing amplifiers
c) Rep eaters
d) Compandors

63. A solid state device named TRIAC acts as a ----- switch
a) 3 terminal unidirectional
b) 2 terminal unidirectional
c) 3 terminal bi-directional
d) 2 terminal bi-directional

64. Identify the fastest logic circuit when speed of operation is concerned-
a) TTL
b) RTL
c) DTL
d) ATL

65. An amplifier CE is characterized by-
a) Low voltage gain
b) Moderate power gain
c) Very high output impedance
d) Signal phase reversal

66. The standard symbol for EX-OR gate is –
a) b)
c) d)

67. Boolean algebra is based on –
a) numbers
b) logic
c) truth
d) symbols

68. Magnetic amplifiers are used for –
a) voltage amplification
b) power amplification
c) current amplification
d) frequency amplification

69. Number of resistors required for an N bit D/A converter in R-2R ladder D/A converter is-
a) 4N
b) 1N
c) 3N
d) 2N

70. 'Not allowed' condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a) s = 0, R = 0
b) s = 1, R = 1
c) s = 0, R = 1
d) s = 1, R = 0
71. . In a PID controlles the transfer function G(s) is



72. A time invariant linear stable system is forced with an input x(t) = A sin wt under steady state conditions, the output Y(t) of the system will be –
a) A sin (wt + f), where f = tan-1G(jw)
b) A G (jw) A sin [wt + G(jw)]
c) G (jw) A sin [2 wt + G (jw)]
d) G (jw) A sin [wt + G (jw)]
x(t)-------G(s)---------y(t)

73. Mark the wrong statement for two phase servo motor –
a) The rotor diameter is small
b) The rotor resistance is low
c) The applied voltages are seldom balanced
d) The torque speed characterstic are linear.

74. The gain phase plot of open loop transfer function of four different systems labelled A, B, C, and D
are shown in the figure. The correct sequence of the increasing order of stability of the four systems will be-
a) A, B, C, D
b) D, C, B, A
c) B, A, D, C,
d) B, C, D, A

75. A unity feedback system has G(S) = . In the loot locus, the break away point occurs between
a) S = 0 and –1
b) S = -1 and ¥
c) S = -1 and –2
d) S =-2 and – ¥
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper free - previous years 2005 2006 2007 2008 download here. JTO Placement paper for BSNL .
76. Twice in a year a few minute disturbance occurs in space communication during sun-blinding when --- are in line
a) Sun and satellite
b) Sun and earth station
c) Satellite and earth station
d) Sun, satellite and earth station

77. The traffic handling capacity of an Earth station on the up link depends on-
a) It’s EIRP
b) Satellite antenna gain
c) Noise associated with the satellite
d) All of the above

78. A supergroup pilot is –
a) applied at each multiplexing bay
b) used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters
c) applied at each adjustable equalizer
d) fed in at a GTE

79. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
a) Ö2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

80. In the given circuit the capacitor C is almost shorted for the frequency range of interest of the input signal . Under this condition the voltage gain of the amplifier will be-
hfe = 100 hie = 1K –
a) 0.33
b) 0.5
c) 0.66
d) 1

81. Microwave frequency bond is-
a) 30 MHz –300 MHz
b) 300 MHz –3 GHz
c) 300 MHz –10 GHz
d) 300 MHz – 30 GHz

82. Directional couplers are designed as-
a) coupler of two-wave guide
b) measuring instrument to measure power of signal through wave-guide
c) director to the signal flow
d) None of the above

83. Gyrator has a -
a) Phase difference of 1800 for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 2 to port 1
b) Phase difference of 1800 for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 1 to port 2
c)1800 phase difference for transmission from either port
d) 00 Phase difference for transmission from either port

84. In klyrtron tube for getting oscillations-
a) electron beam travels & RF field remains stationary
b) both electron beam & RF field travels in same direction
c) both electron & RF field remains stationary
d) RF field travels & electron beam remains stationary

85. The most noisy among below is –
a) IMPATT diode
b) Klyrtron
c) GUNN diode
d) TWT amplifier

86. The GUNN mode of gunn effect oscillator is also called as –
a) Domain mode
b) Delayed domain mode
c) Quenched domain mode
d) LSA mode

87. The total noise voltage across series ckt is –
a)
b)
c)
d)

88. The vertical height of F1 layer in ionospheric layer is –
a) 180 km
b) 70 km
c) 110 km
d) 400 km

89. 8085 mP contains instruction in instruction set-
a) 64
b) 74
c) 246
d) 256

90. If the clock freq. is 5 MHz how much time is required to execute on instruction 18 T-states-
a) 3.6 m sec)
b) 36 m sec)
c) 36 m sec)
d) 36 sec)

91. In 8085 mP a word is equal to-
a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit

92. The instruction used to set continuous loops-
a) JC
b) JMP
c) JP
d) JPE

93. What happen when RET instruction executed -
a) data retrieved from stock to register
b) data from register saved on the stock
c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.
d)16 bit address from stock retrieved

94. DMA is a process-
a) Interrupt data transfer.
b) high speed data transfer under control of microprocessor
c) high speed data transfer under control of DMA controller.
d) Interrupt data read

95. No. of boolean function can be generated from 3 variables-
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 256

96. The data storage in dynamic RAM is cell of-
a) capacitance
b) transistor
c) flip flop
d) transistor acting as capacitor

97. What is 9’s complement of 23-
a) 76
b) 77
c) 78
d) 79

98. An array is collection of -
a) different data type scattered throughout memory
b) same data type scattered throughout memory
c) same data type placed next to each other in memory
d) different data type placed next to each other in memory

99. While reading from the memory location for active high i/p pins-
a) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 0 level
b) Read at 0 and chip select at logical 1 level
c) Read at 1 and chip select at logical 0 level
d) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 1 level
BSNL JTO Recruitment / Placement Question Paper previous years 2007 2008 free download online here. solutions coming soon..
100. When all i/p bits of AND gate are zero then o/p will be-
a) 0
b) 1
c) un-defined
d) none

101. The fan out comparison between TTL logic and DRL logic is
a) Both logic having higher fan out
b) TTL logic having higher fan out than DRL logic
c) TTL logic having lower fan out than DRL logic
d) Both logic having lower fan out

102. I was asked to perform the task of numbering points we had scored –
a) sad
b) said
c) tallow
d) strenous
103. The taste is rancid as the rank is –
a) odour
b) look
c) smell
d) sound
104. Troupe is a group of performers in a –
a) play
b) circus
c) cinema
d) orchestra
105. Complete the sentence with correct alternative
He is --- well today-
a) no
b) none
c) not
d) nought
106. Fritter is –
a) sour
b) chafe
c) dissipate
d) cancel

107. The sun rays falls vertically on-
a) Tropics
b) Doldrums
c) Poles
d) Equator

108. In India ‘Lotus’ award is given in the field of-
a) Literature
b) Films
c) Sports
d) Social Service

109. The Chauri-Chaura incident is related to
a) A major offensive by underground revolutionaries
b) Large scale looting of government property by congress worker
c) Massive police firing on unarmed satyagrahis
d) the burning of a police post by a mob

110. Dadamuni Ashok Kumar deceased on-
a) 10 December 2001
b) 20 December 2001
c) 10 January 2001
d) 20 January 2001

111. The first batsman in Test history to aggregate 350 plus runs in a Test Match is-
a) Sanath Jaisurya
b) Brian Lara
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Steve Waugh

112. Antibiotics which are effective against more than one type of bacteria are known as-
a) Surya drugs
b) Multibiotics
c) Broad-spectrum
d) Anti metabodies

113. The books Sushrut Sanhita and Charak S anhita are related to-
a) Hindu rituals
b) Interpretation of Puranas
c) Interpretation of Vedas
d) Ayurvedic system of medicine

114. An enzyme is a protein that -
a) Is used by the body as a food
b) Acts as an organic catalyst
c) Forms the hair and nails of the body
d) Make up the membranes of the cells

115. Atal Behari Vajpayee was Prime Minister for 13 days in-
a) May 1996
b) June 1997
c) September 1996
d) July 2000

116. RBI lowers the deposit rates ceiling for non banking finance companies from 14 percent to – percent per annum-
a) 12.5
b) 11.5
c) 10.5
d) 9.5

117. Booker prize is won in the field of -
a) Science
b) Medicine
c) Fiction writing
d) Adventure

118. Leprosy is caused by-
a) Bacterium
b) Virus
c) Protozoa
d) Helminthes

119. . Zojila is a pass between-
a) Kashmir valley and Ladakh
b) Lahaul valley and Spiti
c) Chumbi valley and Sikkim
d) Aurnachal Pradesh and Tibet

120. Deforestation results in-
1. Flora destruction
2. Fauna destruction
3. Ecological misbalance
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

BSNL GE JTO Examination Paper

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - III
1. Of the following bridges the one which can be used for the measurement of dielectric loss of a capacitor is –
a.) Schering bridge
b) Heaviside campbell equal ratio voltage
c) Owen bridge
d) Anderson bridge

2. LBDT is uses as a –
a). Displacement transducer
b) Pressure transducer
c) Temperature
d.) Any of the above

3. Polarization is a measure of -
a.) Dielectric constant per unit volume.
b.)Voltage gradient to produce electrical breakdown
c.) Product of charge and distance
d.)Excess charge density

4. Compared to the inductive type of transducer, capacitive transducer is superior for the measurement of displacement because of -
a.)Absence of non-linearity
b.) High frequency response
c.) Small size
d.) High accuracy

5. An incremental model of a solid state device is one which represents the –
a.) ac property of the device at the desired operating point
b.dc property of the device at all operating points
c.) Complete ac and dc behaviour of the device at all operating points
d.)ac property of the device at all operating points.

6. The ac resistance of a forward biased p-n junction diode operating at a bias voltage 'V' and carrying current ‘I’ is –
a. )Zero
b. )a constant value independent of Vand I
c.)
d.)

7. A meter is shielded with a soft iron to –
a. )Prevent damage from rough use
b.) Keep moisture out of movement
c. )Protect meter movement from stray magnetic fields
d.) Achieve all of the above

8. A capacitor that has been connected across a battery for comparatively long time becomes–
a. )Charged
b.) Discharged
c.) Short - circuited
d.) Defective

9. The charge on the plates of a capacitor is given by the expression –
a.) Q = VI
b.) Q = IR
c.) Q = CV
d.) Q = IC

10. Silicon steel used for electrical purposes has silicon percentage of –
a. )0.5
b.) 2.5
c.) 3.4
d). None

11. The feature of VTM is its –
a. )Low input impedance
b. )Low power consumbtion
c. )The ability to measure wider ranges of voltage and resistances
d). None

12. In an N-type semiconductor, the position of the fermi level –
a. )Is lower than the centre of the energy gap
b.) Is at the centre of the energy gap
c.)Is higher than the centre of the energy gap
d. )Can be anywhere depending upon the doping concentration

13. A JFET can operate in –
a.) depletion and enhancement model
b. )depletion mode only
c. )enhancement mode only
d.) neither enhancement nor depletion mode

14. Consider the following semiconductor diodes –
a. )Germanium diode
b.)Silicon diode
c.) Tunnel diode
d.) Schottky diode

15. A diode with a PIV of 50V is likely to break down when rectifying 50v ac supply because –
a.) it is made of defective material
b.) it is incorrectly connected to the supply
c.) peak value of ac supply exceeds the PIV value
d. ac supply is of extremely high frequency.

16. The set of transistor characteristics that enables a to be determined directly from the slope is –
a.) CE transfer characteristics
b. CE output characteristics
c.) CB transfer characteristics
d.) CB input characteristics

17. For an N-channel JFET, the drain voltage has to be –
a.) positive with respect to the source
b.) negative with respect to the source
c.) uncharged with respect to the source
d.)none

18. The SCR is often employed as a –
a. )Source-controlled switch
b. )Drain-controlled switch
c.) Gate-controlled switch
d) None

19. An oscilloscope has an input impedance consisting of 1MW and 20pF in parallel. A high impedance probe connected to the input of this oscilloscope has a 10MW series resistance, this 10MW resistance –
a.) Need not be shunted
b.) Should be shunted by a 2pF capacitor
c.) Should be shunted by a 20pF capacitor
d. Should be shunted by a 200pF capacitor

20. Compared to silicon, gallium arsenide (GaAs) has –
a. )Easier to grow crystals since the vapour pressure of arsenic is high
b. )Higher optolectronic conversion efficiency
c.) Both a and b
d). None

21. When the network shown in the fig draw a current I and if the ends ab are shorted, the current drawn would be –

a.) I
b.) I\ 4
c.) 4 I
d.) 2 I

22. When all the resistances in the circuit are of one ohm each, then the equivalent resistance across the points A and B will be –
a.)1W
b.) 0.5W
c.) 2W
d). 1.5W

23. Of the following periodic waveforms the one having only odd harmonics of sinusoidal waveform is-
a. )1 and 2
b.) 1 and 3
c. )1 and 4
d. )2 and 4

24. When in the network shown in the given fig, the switch K is dosed at t = 0 with the capacitor uncharged then the value for at t = 0+ will be –
a. )100 amp./sec.
b. )–100 amp./sec.
c. )1000 amp./sec.
d. )–1000 amp./sec.
BSNL Examination Question Paper free download online
25. For the circuit shown in the given figure, the voltage VAB is –
a. )6V
b.)10V
c. )25V
d. )40V

26. In the network shown in the given fig. current i = 0 when E = 4V, I = 2A and I = 1A when E = 8V, I = 2A. The Thevenin voltage and the resistance into the terminals AB are –

a. )4V, 2W
b.) 4V, 4W
c.) 8V, 2W
d.) 8V, 4W

27. The effective resistance between the terminals A and B in the circuit shown in the fig. is –

R

a.) R
b.) R-1
c.) R/2
d.) 6/11 R

28. When in a two terminal network, the open circuit voltage measured at the given terminals by an electronic voltmeter is 100V and a short circuit current measured at the same terminals by an ammeter of negligible resistance is 5A then if a resistor of 80W is connected at the same terminal, then the current in the load resistor will be –
a. 1A
b.) 1.25A
c). 6A
d. 6.25A
29. If for the network shown in the following fig. the value of Z(s) is then the value of C and R are respectively –

30. In Faraday’s induction phenomenon, a changing magnetic field is accompanied by an electric field. Which of the following equation or equations represents it-


31. The electric potential due to an electric dipole of length L at point distance r away from it will be doubled if the -
a. ) Length L of the dipole is doubled
b. ) r is doubled
c. ) r is halved
d ) L is halved

32. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propogation . The resulting mode is
a. ) Longitudinal electric
b. ) Transverse electromagnetic
c. ) Transverse magnetic
d ). Transverse electric

33. When for a transmission line the open circuit and short circuit impedance are 20W and 5 W respectively then the characteristic impedance of the line is -
a. ) 100 Ohms
b ). 50 Ohms
c. ) 25 Ohms
d. ) 10 Ohms

34. In an ideal transmission line with matched load, the voltage standing wave ratio and reflection coefficient are respectively -
a. ) 1 and 1
b ). infinity and 1
c ) infinity and 0
d. 1 and 0

35. When an electric charge of 100 coulombs is enclosed in sphere of radius 100 m then the electric displacement density ( in coulomb / m2) D is –
a. ) 0.0833
b ). 0.833
c. ) 1.666
d. ) 10

36. For the dominant mode in a rectangular wavelength with breadth 10 cm, the guide wavelength for a signal of 2.5 GHz will be -
a. ) 12 cm
b. ) 15 cm
c. ) 18 cm
d. ) 20 cm

37. When the phase velocity of an electromagnetic waves depends on frequency in any medium, the phenomenon is called-
a. ) Scattering
b. )Polarization
c. ) Absorption
d. ) Dispersion

38. Antennas commonly used for microwave links are -
a. ) Loop antenna
b. ) Log-periodic antennas
c. ) Paraboloidal dishes
d ). Rhombic antennas

39. One of the following instrument which may be used to measure the optical activity of compounds is –
a. )Infrared spectrometer
b. ) Atomic absorption spectrometer
c. ) Polarimeter
d. ) Flouroscope

40. Schering bridge measures –
a. )Capacitance dielectric loss
b. ) Inductance
c. )Resistance
d. ) Mutual inductance

41.When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit, then –
a. ) voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b. ) voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) voltage across both R and C are square
d. ) voltage across both R and C are not square

42. The time constant of the RC circuit is –
a. ) less than the time period of the input square wave.
b ). much larger than the time period of the input square wave.
c. equal to the time period of the input square wave.
d ). none

43. Harmonic distortion for each frequency can be obtained by harmonic analyser of the –
a. )heterodyne type
b. ) tuned circuit type
c. ) fundamental suppression type`
d. ) bridge circuit type.

44. A three phase wattmeter requires –
a ). only two current coils and two pressure coils
b. )only one current coil and two pressure coil
c. ) only two current coils and one pressure coil
d. ) only current coil

45. A low pass filter circuit is basically –
a. ) a differentiating circuit with low time constant
b. ) a differentiating circuit with large time constant.
c. ) an integrating circuit with low time constant.
d. )an integrating circuit with large time constant.

46. If the differential pressure in restriction type flow measuring devices is then the flow will be proportional to –
47. When a system is represented by the transfer function then the dc gain of this system is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 5
d.) 10

48. Silicon based semiconductor device called thyristor was first fabricated by –
a). Jell laboratories in U.S.A
b). Maxwell laboratories in U.S.A
c.) Bell laboratories in U.S.A
d). GEC laboratories in U.S.A

49. A semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500mV/0C. This transducer is indeed a –
a.)Thermistor
b.) Forward biased pn junction diode
c. )Reverse biased pn junction diode
d.) FET
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50. Which of the followings pairs of Telemetry situations and Modulation techniques and conditions is correctly matched-
a. )Pulse amplitude modulation Low amplitude signals
b. )Pulse position modulation For short distance when power is enough
c.) Pulse width modulation Power to be spent in telemetry is required to be low
d.) Pulse code modulation. Minimisation of interference effects.

51. The SCR ratings di/dt in A/m sec and dv/dt in n/m sec, may vary, respectively between-
a.) 20 to 500, 10 to 100
b. )both 20 to 500
c.) both 10 to 100
d.) 50 to 300, 20 to 500

52. Match the given controlled rectifiers with 50 Hz supply
a. )1 phase full converter with source inductance
b. )3 phase full converter
c.)3 phase semiconductor
d. )3 phase halls wave converter

53. For natural or forced commutation the cyclo converters (CCs) requires as under.
a) natural commutation in both step up and step down CCs
b.) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs
c.) forced commutation in step up CCs
d). forced commutation in step down CCs

54. The peak inverse voltage in ac to dc converter system is highest in-
a). single phase full wave mid point converter
b). single phase full converter
c) 3 phase bridge converter
d). 3 phase half wave converter.
55. A single phase full converter feeds power to RLE load with R = 6 W L = 6 MH and E = 60 V. The ac source voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz, For continuous conduction, the average value of load current for a firing angle delay of 50 is
a.)12.181 A
b). 14.81 A
c). 16.76 A
d.) 32.40 A

56. Which one of the following is the Fourier transform of the signal given in fig. B if the Fourier transform of the signal in fig A is given by -



57. What is 215 complement of 00011100-
a.) 11100011
b.) 10001100
c.) 11100100
d.) 10000111

58. In C programming a expression contains relational operators, assignment operators and arithmetic operators if parentheses is absent then execution follows
a.) assignment, relational, arithmatic
b.) arithmatic, relational, assignment
c.) relational, arithmatic, assignment
d.) assignment, arithmatic, relational

59. In semiconductor memory information stored in form-
a.) binary
b.) hexadecimal
c.) octal
d.) ASCII

60. i\p to Not gate gives o/p as-
a ) inversion of some bits
b.) 2’s complement of i\p
c.) 1’s complement of i\p
d.) o/p is some as i\p

61. A negative logic means-
a .)logic 0 and 1 are represented by a +ve voltage respective
b). logic 0 and 1 are presented as –ve and +ve voltage
c. )logic 0 voltage is higher than logic 1 voltage level
d.) logic 0 voltage is lower than logic 1 voltage level

62. For designing D flip flop from SR FF a circuit is aloud at 01p of SR FF is-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NOR
d.) NOT

63.The transistor shown in fig is


a. ) Silicon, NPN with Ic = 0.5 mA
b.) Silicon PNP with Ic = 0.5 mA
c.) Germanium PNP with IE = 0.5 mA
d.) Germanium NPN with Ic=0.5 mA

64.A 20,000 Ohms per volt meter will deflect full-scale with a current of -
a.) 50 mA
b.) 50 mA
c.) 100 mA
d.) 1000 mA

65. A plate modulated class –CRF power amplifier produces 100 KW of radiated power at 100 % modulation. The modulating audio amplifier supplies approximately -------- kW of this power-
a.)50
b).33
c).22
d).11

66..An amplifier without feedback has a distortion of 15 % and gain of 40. When 10% negative feedback is applied the distortion will become-
a.) 50 %
b). -45 %
c). 3%
d). -5%

67. MODEM implies-
a.)Modulator at transmitting side and ditector at the receiving side
b.)Which deals with analog signals and shows digital information
c.)Analog to digital at transmitting side and digital to analog at a receiving side
d).A device which deals with digital signals only

68. Twisted ring and ring counters are examples of –
a. )Synchronous counters
b.) Asynchronous counters
c.) both a and b
d.) None of the above

69. Specify Non characteristic flip flop in the following –
a.) The outputs are complement of each other
b.) The flip flop has two input signals
c.) The flip flop has two output signals
d). The flip flop is a bistable devise with only two stable states
BSNL Recruitment Question JTO Examination Paper
70. The voltage obtained when digital input is 001 is a 3 bit R-2R ladder DIA converter is-
a.) VR/22
b.) VR/21
c.) VR/23
d.) none of the above

71. Identify NOT an octal number-
a.) 19
b). 15
c.) 77
d.) 101

72. The set of binary digits 01000100 represent's-
a.) number 6810 in a pure binary computer
b.) number 44 in 8421 BCD code
c) Both a and b
d.) None of the above

73. The system matrix of a continuous time system, described in the state variable form is –

The system is stable for all values of x and y satisfying –
a.)x < 1/2, y < 1/2
b). x < 0, y < 2
c. )x > 1/2 , y >0
d.) x < 0 , y < 1/2

74. The break away and break in point in the root locus for open loop transfer function G(S) H(S) = are located respectively at –
a). –2 and -1
b). –2.47 and –3.77
c.) –4.27 and –7.73
d.) –7.73 and –4.27

75. The transfer function for the given system shown in figure is –

76. The type and order of the system whose Nyquist plot is shown in fig is-
a.)0.1
b.) 1,2
c.) 0,2
d). 2,1

77. The overall transfer function in a second order is given by-
Its resonant frequency is -
a.) 2
b.)
c).
d.) 3

78. The detection of an AM waveform in an Envelope –
a.)One side band and full amplitude carrier are needed
b.) Both side bands and full amplitude carrier are needed
c). Only two side bands are needed
d). Upper side band and part of carriers are needed

79. Satellite used for intercontinental communication is known as –
a.) Comsat
b). Dom sat
c.) Mari sat
d). Intelsat

80. Mark out non submarine cable –
a. )TAT – 7
b.) INTELSAT V
c.) ATLANTIS
d. )CANTAT 2

81. The capacity of an analog communication channel with 4kHz bandwidth and 15 dB SNR is approximately-
a). 20,000 bps
b). 16,000 bps
c.) 10,000 bps
d.) 8,000 bps

82. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a.) Carrier frequency
b.) Pulse repetition frequency
c. )Antenna rotation rate
d.) Transmitted power

83. The output voltage in a feedback series regulator circuit is regulated by controlling the-
a.) Magnitude of the input voltage
b.) Gain of the feedback transistor
c.) Reference voltage
d.) Voltage drop across the series pass transistor

84. Indicate the signal not transmitted in colour TV-
a.) Y
b.) Q
c.) R
d.) I

85. As frequency of singal increases-
a.) Directivity increases & beam width increases
b.) Directivity & beam width decreases
c.) Directivity increases & beam width decreases
d.) Directivity decreases & beam width increases

86. The number of hardware interupts (which require an external signal to interrupt) present in on 8085 mP are
a). 1
b). 4
c.) 5
d.) 13

87. Highest priority interupt is-
a. )INTR
b. )RST 7.5
c. )RST 6.5
d. )TRAP

88. One instruction cycle means-
a. )Time require to execute set of instructions
b. )Time require to execute one instruction
c.) Time require to complete one operation of accessing memory, or I/o
d.) None of above

89. If the clock freq. is 5 mH3 how much time is required to execute on instruction of 18 T-states-
a. )3.6 msec.
b.) 36 m sec.
c.) 36 m sec.
d.) 36 sec.

90. In data transfer operation which flog get affected-
a. )zero flog
b. )carry flog
c. )sign flog.
d.) none

91. CMP instruction comes under group -
a. )Data transfer
b. )Brouching operations
c). Machine control operation
d.) logical operations

92. The logic operation-
a.) are performed in relation to content of Accemce lotor
b).can be performed derectly with content of the register.
c.)are performed without content of a
d.)none of above.

93. What happen when PUSH instruction executed -
a.) data retrieved from stock to register
b.) data from register saved on the stock.
c.) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.
d.) 16 bit address from stock retrieved

94. SIM stands for-
a. ) serial interface memory
b.) set interrupt mosk
c. ) set if minus
d.) set internal memory

95. Maximum clock frequency required to operate 8085-
a. )2 MHz
b.) 3 MHz
c) 6 MHz
d. )9 MHz

96. ASCII code is-
a). 7 bit
b). 8 bit
c.)16 bit
d.) 32 bit.

97. In memory mapped I/O address lines are-
a. ) 8
b.) 16
c.) 32
d.) 64

98. The parity bit adding technique is used for -
a. )Indexing
b. )Coding
c. )Error detection
d. )Controlling

99. A demultiplexer-
a. )has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has single i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p
BSNL Placement Question Paper , Solutions SOon!
100. Subroutines are useful-
a. )to reduce storage requirements
b.) to increase programming speed and reduce storage
c.) most applications are same
d.) but increases expense

101. As daring goes with temerity same way clear-sighted with –
a. )Perspicacity
b.) Impulsiveness
c.)Energy
d. )Clemency

102. A man who visits his friend is a –
a. )Host
b. )Guest
c. )Master
d.) Owner

103. Zealot is –
a. )beginner
b.) Patron
c.) fanatic
d.) Murderer

104 Give the plural of ‘Mouse’ –
a. )Mouse’s
b). Mice
c). Mouse
d). None

105. Find the part of speech of the underlined word –
Shama and Radha were playing together.
a. )Preposition.
b. )Noun
c. )Conjunction.
d) Verb.

106. Which of the following is not one of the multiple names of ganesha?
a). Vinayaka
b). Lambodra
c.) Ekadanta
d.) Vighneshwara
e. )all of the above

107. If a man weighs 60 Kilograms on earth, how much will be his weight on the moon?
a. )50 kg
b. )40 kg
c. )20 kg
d. )10 kg

108. The only Indian star selected for waxing at the famous Madame Tussaud’s wax is-
a. )Salman Khan
b. )Amitabh Bachan
c. )ShahRukh Khan.
d. )Raj Kapoor

109 Rate of gowth of per capita income in India drops down to – percent in 2000-2001-.
a. )5.3 percent
b. )3.5 percent
c. )4.8 percent
d. )8.4 percent

110. Ascorbic acid is the chemical name of-
a. )Vitamin A
b. )Vitamin B
c. )Vitamin C
d.) Vitamin D

111. All India Muslim League was founded by-
a. )Nawab Slimullah Khan
b. )Sir Mohd Iqubal
c.) Sir syed Ahmed Khan
d.) Moulana Shaukat Ali

112. Red Blood corpuscles are formed in-
a. )Marrow
b.) Kidney
c). Liver
d). heart

113. The southern most tip of India is in-
a. )Lakshadweeep
b.) Kanya Kumari
c. )Andaman and Nicobar Islands
d. )Rameswaram

114 The first bowler in cricket history to take 500 test wickets is-
a.) Imran Khan
b). Courtney Walsh
c). Shane Warne
d.) Muttiah Murlidharan

115 President of the National Consumer Disputes Redress al Commission (NCDRC) is-
a.) Mr. D.C Wadhwa
b). Mr. A. P Wadhwa
c.) Mr. A. C Wadhwa
d.) Mr. D. P Wadhwa

116. C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize for-
a. )Themodynamics
b.) Quantum theory
c. )Optics and spectroscopy
d.) Nuclear Physics

117. First governor general of Bengal-
a). Lord Clive
b.) Lord warren Hastings
c. )Lord Lytton
d.) Lord Ripon

118. The slogan “Do or Die” is associated with-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Gandhigi
c.) Harijan
d.) Satyagraha

119. Champaran is in the state of-
a). Gujarat
b). Maharashtra
c.) Bihar
d). Madhya Pradesh

120. These tribes are found in central Asia-
a. )Garos
b. )Kirghiz
c.) Lushai
d). Santhals

BSNL JTO Examination Question Paper

BSNL Examination JTO Question Paper


BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - II
1. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular

2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None

3. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel

5. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
6. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

7. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET

8. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

9. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

10. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps

11. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias

12. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6

13. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats

14. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC

15. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none

16. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b

17. A diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width

18. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
19. When the two networks shown in fig. are equivalent with respect to the terminals 1 and 2 at all frequencies then the values of CA, LB, LC and CC will be –

a) 0.5, 0.33, 6, 0.166
b) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.66
c) 0.5, 3, 3, 2
d) 0.5, 3, 6, 0.166
BSNL Placement Question Paper
20. The transmission parameter of the network C when the transmission parameter of the network A and B are and respectively are -


21. The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff's law
b) Norton's theorem
c) Thevenin's theorem
d) Superposition theorem

22. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

23. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

24. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position

25. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network

26. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C

27. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
d) h12

28. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

29. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz

30. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding

31. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
32. One of the following statements which is not true for a strip line compared to a waveguide is –
a) It can be directly connected to semiconductor microwave devices
b) It is much smaller in size
c) It has a smaller bandwidth
d) Losses are less

33. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W

34. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

35. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560

36. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

37. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer
b) PMMC
c) Electrostatic
d) Moving iron

38. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?
a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A
c) A dc ammeter will read 10A
d) A dc ammeter will read zero

39. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of these

40. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) the maximum number of input channels
b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) it's internal clock period
d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

41. The aperture time of an A to D converter is given by -

42. A memoryless system is –
a) causal
b) not causal
c) nothing can be said
d) none

43. An air capacitor is a –
a) time variant
b) active device
c) time invariant
d) time invariant and passive device

44. Thermistors are made of -
a) pure metals
b) pure insulators
c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides
d) pure semiconductor

45. Pirani gauge is used to measure –
a) very low pressures
b) high pressures
c) pressures in the region of 1 atm
d) fluid flow

46. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –
a) AC voltage controllers
b) Cyclo converters
c) Phase controlled rectifiers
d) Inverters

47. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from –
a) off state to on state
b) on state to off state
c) on state to on state
d) off state to off state

48. Q factor of a coil in Maxwell bridge is obtained as –

49. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -
a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage
b) peak working off state forward voltage
c) peak working off state reverse voltage
d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
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50. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-
a) is a straight line passing through origin
b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg
c) is a curve between Vg and Ig
d) has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

51. A four quadrant operation requires-
a) two full converters in series
b) two full converters connected back to back
c) two full converters connected in parallel
d) two semi converters connected back to back

52. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –
a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P
c) 2Vs, 2P
d) 2Vs, P

53. For critical damping of the resonant circuit consisting of Rd, L, C in series is –
d) none of the above

54. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region
b) only a saturation region
c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages
d) an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

55. The energy gap in a semiconductor -
a) increases with temperature
b) remains constant
c) slightly increase with temperature
d) decrease with temperature

56. In an electronic circuit matching means -
a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance
b) selection of components which are compatible
c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.
d) RC coupled stages

57. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because
a) They have higher input impedance
b) They have high switching time
c) They consume less power
d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

58. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -
a) Increase in ICEO
b) Increase in ac current gain
c) Decrease in ac current gain
d) Increase in output resistance

59. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -
a) 13. 3 KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 10KHz
d) 40KHz

60. The output of a class B amplifier -
a) is distortion free
b) consists of positive half cycles only
c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier
d) comprises short duration current pulses
61. An amplifier with negative feedback -
a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency
b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency
c) increases its bandwidth
d) all of the above

62. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -
a) Block becomes redundant
b) A FM detector would be required
c) A high frequency signal generator
d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

63. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-
a) greater speed
b) slower speed
c) average speed
d) none of the above

64. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc
b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc
d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc

65. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be –
(y denotes don't care)
a) y and 0
b) y and 1
c) 0 and y
d) 1 and y

66. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –
a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor
c) a transistor
d) a capacitance

67. The 2's complement of 10002 is –
a) 0111
b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 0001

68. Master slave flip-flop is made up of –
a) two flip flops connected in series
b) two flip flops connected in parallel
c) a debouncer circuit
d) a-D- latch

69. Number of nybbles making one byte is –
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

70. The intrinsic impedance of free space-
a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency
c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency

71. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -
a) –200 dB/decade
b) –240 dB/decade
c) –230 dB/decade
d) –320 dB/decade
72. In a unity feed back control system the open loop transfer function is
The closed loop transfer unit will have pole at –
a) –2, -2
b) –2, -1
c) –2, +j1,-j1
d) –2, 2
73. In a compensating network the transfer function is of the form If this is a phase log network the value of should be –
a) exactly equal to 0
b) between 0 and 1
c) exactly equal to 1
d) greater than 1

74. Considering the conditions-
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing
3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

75. A typical control system is shown.
Assuming the steady state errors is given by


*
76. The centre and radius of M of circles are given respectively by

77. The open –loop transfer function for a unity feedback system is –
what is the steady state error if the input is,
r(t) = (2 + 3t + 4t2) u(t)
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
78. The sensitivity SGM of a system with the transfer function is given by

79. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –
a) 24 hour orbit
b) stationary satellite
c) global communication
d) zero-gravity environs

80. Radio Broadcasting is an example of –
a) space multiplexing
b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing
d) none of the above

81. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a –
a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone
b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF
c) A differentiator followed by a LPF
d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

82. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –
a) AND gates
b) Band pass
c) differentiation
d) Integration

83. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-
a) frequency shift keying
b) two – tone modulation
c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation

84. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-
a) FM generation only
b) 100AM generation only
c) PM generation only
d) both PM and AM generation

85. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-
a) reduce x-ray emission
b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots
c) increase screen brightness
d) provide degaussing for the screen

86. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-
a) the keyed AGC amplifar
b) a clipper
c) an integrator
d) a sawtooth current

87. Band width of microwaves is-
a) 1GHz -103 GHz
b) 1GHz –100 GHz
c) 1 GHz –10 GHz
d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz

88. In transverse Magnetic mode-
a) no electric line is in direction of propagation
b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation
c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation
d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

89. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to –
a) Reforction of wave
b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere
d) None

90. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be –
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 3600

91. The transmission does not have -
a) Partition noise
b) Flicker noise
c) resistance
d) Short noise

92. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -
a) capacitance
b) Inductance
c) Resistance
d) Is a linear device

93. Scattering matrix equation for directional coupler is –
a)
b)
c)
d)

94. Noise figure is calculated as –
a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio
b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio
c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100
d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

95. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart
b) Nyquist plot
c) Bode plot
d) Root locus.
96. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) –5, 1
b) –2.5, 1
c) –5,0-5
d) –5, 2

97. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-
a) zero and 1
b) zero and 10
c) 10 and zero
d) 70 and 80

98. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal
c) minimize free-space losses
d) maximize antenna gain

99. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-
a) EIRP
b) Antenna size
c) Coverage area
d) Antenna gain
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100. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-
a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking
c) the serrations
d) the horizontal retrace

101. The son seems to have -------- from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-
a) washed
b) inherited
c) admired
d) attempt

102. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-
a) water
b) stone
c) air
d) hills

103. What is a collection of sheep called ?
a) bunch
b) flock
c) herd
d) comet

104. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :
You can buy a book. You can read it.
a) and
b) nor
c) either
d) neither

105. What is the opposite of Asperity –
a) gentility
b) superiority
c) kindness
d) clarity

106. The Election Commission functions under-
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law
c) Prime Minister's Secretariat
d) None of these

107. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-
a) President's Rule is to be imposed
b) Emergency is declared
c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry
d) A political party of national level is to be banned

108. Radio-activity was first discovered by-
a) Becquerel
b) Madam Curie
c) Rutherford
d) Jenner

109. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-
a) 1995-2000
b) 1996-2001
c) 1997-2002
d) 1998-2003

110. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?
a) 5,000 MW
b) 10,000 MW
c) 15,000 MW
d) 20,000 MW

111. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?
a) 1769
b) 1789
c) 1889
d) 1869

112. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?
a) 1/10th of total membership
b) 1/6th of total membership
c) 1/4th of total membership
d) 1/5th of total membership

113. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10

114. The International Date Line is represented by-
a) 1000 meridian
b) 00 meridian
c) 1800 meridian
d) 900 meridian

115. India's first satellite was launched from-
a) Sriharikota
b) Cape Kennedy
c) Bangalore
d) A Soviet cosmodrome

116. Name the author of the famous book "Politics"-
a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Plato
d) None of them

117. "Guernica" is Picasso's painting on-
a) The Spanish Civil War
b) The American Civil War
c) The French Revolution
d) The Russian Revolution

118. The object of the Supreme Court's Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -
a) To put a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers
b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution
c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
d) None of these

119. Which country in July '99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?
a) N. Korea
b) France
c) India
d) China

120. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland

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